CHEMOTHRAPY QUIZ – Vetedemy

Results

QUIZ START

#1. Bacterial susceptibility to beta-lactam antibiotics depends upon

Production of beta-lactamases

Permeability of cell wall

Sensitivity of penicillin binding protein

All of the above

#2. Which of the following is a fourth-generation cephalosporin?

Cefepime

Cefpirome

Cefquinome

All of the above

#3. Cefotaxime which is highly effective in Staphylococci infection is classified as

First generation cephalosporin

Second generation cephalosporin

Third generation cephalosporin

Fourth generation cephalosporin

#4. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) confers resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics through mutation in

Penicillin Binding Protein 2a (PBP2a)

PBP1b

PBP3

Ribosomal 50S subunit

#5. Which of the following organisms belonging to the genus Mycoplasma are inherently resistant to

Tetracyclines

Erythromycin

Sulfonamides

Penicillins

#6. The drug of choice for treating Black Quarter (Clostridium chauvoei) in cattle is

Tetracycline

Sulfonamides

Enrofloxacin

Penicillin G

#7. In direct smear or Gram staining, Streptococcus spp. appear as

Gram positive cocci in chains

Gram negative rods

Gram positive bacilli in clusters

Gram negative cocci

#8. Which antibiotic class acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis?

Aminoglycosides

Beta-lactams

Tetracyclines

Fluoroquinolones

#9. Aminoglycoside antibiotics show maximum antibacterial activity in which pH environment?

Acidic pH

Alkaline pH

Neutral pH

Highly acidic pH

#10. Which of the following is NOT a broad-spectrum aminoglycoside?

Neomycin

Streptomycin

Kanamycin

Gentamicin

#11. The most nephrotoxic agent among aminoglycoside antibiotics is

Neomycin

Tobramycin

Gentamicin

Amikacin

#12. Which of the following antibacterial agents causes aplastic anemia in human beings?

Thiamphenicol

Chloramphenicol

Florfenicol

Erythromycin

#13. Doxycycline is preferred over oxytetracycline in renal failure because it is primarily excreted via

Glomerular filtration

Biliary and fecal route

Pulmonary exhalation

Tubular secretion

#14. Mechanism of action of tetracyclines involves binding to which ribosomal subunit?

30S ribosomal subunit

50S ribosomal subunit

60S ribosomal subunit

40S ribosomal subunit

#15. Macrolide antibiotics like erythromycin and tylosin act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis through binding to

30S subunit

50S subunit

DNA gyrase

RNA polymerase

#16. Which of the following aminoglycosides is commonly used for topical application?

Amikacin

Cefepime

Tazobactam

Polymyxin B

#17. Which of the following fluoroquinolones is eliminated largely unchanged from the body?

Ciprofloxacin

Ofloxacin

Pefloxacin

Enrofloxacin

#18. The prototype fluoroquinolone developed specifically for veterinary use is

Pefloxacin

Ciprofloxacin

Enrofloxacin

Norfloxacin

#19. Sulfonamides induce Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS) most commonly in which species?

Dogs

Cattle

Horses

Pigs

#20. Acetylation is a major pathway of sulfonamide metabolism in domestic animals EXCEPT in

Horses

Cattle

Dogs

Goats

#21. Sulfonamide which is used specifically for topical burn therapy is

Silver sulfadiazine

Sulfadoxine

Sulfamethoxazole

Sulfamerazine

#22. Trimethoprim acts by inhibiting which enzyme in bacterial folate synthesis?

Dihydrofolate reductase

Dihydropteroate synthase

DNA gyrase

Topoisomerase IV

#23. Sulfonamides act as competitive antagonists of which substrate?

Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)

Folic acid

Glutamic acid

Methionine

#24. Which sulfonamide is ultralong-acting and commonly combined with pyrimethamine?

Sulfadiazine

Sulfadoxine

Sulfamethazine

Sulfaguanidine

#25. Amphotericin B produces organ-directed dose-limiting toxicity primarily in the

Liver

Heart

Kidneys

Lungs

#26. Which of the following systemically administered drugs is used against deep fungal infections?

Bacitracin

Itraconazole

Netobimin

Polymyxin B

#27. Flucytosine is classified pharmacologically as an

Antifungal agent

Antiviral agent

Antibacterial agent

Antiprotozoal agent

#28. Griseofulvin exerts its antifungal activity by disrupting

Microtubule function and mitotic spindle

Fungal cell wall chitin synthesis

Ergosterol synthesis directly

Nuclear membrane

#29. Mechanism of action of azole antifungals (ketoconazole, itraconazole) involves inhibition of

14-alpha-demethylase enzyme

Squalene epoxidase

Chitin synthase

RNA polymerase

#30. Which agent is used topically for Ringworm infection (dermatophytosis) in calves?

Miconazole

Ivermectin

Tiamulin

Tilmicosin

#31. Acyclovir is a nucleoside analogue effective against which group of viruses?

Herpesviruses

Poxviruses

Parvoviruses

Reoviruses

#32. Which antifungal antibiotic is produced by Streptomyces nodosus?

Amphotericin B

Nystatin

Natamycin

All of the above

#33. Which of the following is NOT an anti-tubercular drug?

Ethambutol

Isoniazid

Rifampicin

Oxyclozanide

#34. Isoniazid acts against Mycobacterium tuberculosis by inhibiting the synthesis of

Mycolic acid

Peptidoglycan

Arabinogalactan

Folic acid

#35. Rifampicin exerts its bactericidal action by inhibiting bacterial

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

DNA gyrase

Topoisomerase II

Dihydrofolate reductase

#36. Which drug is used as a first-line antitubercular agent that causes red-orange discoloration of bodily secretions?

Isoniazid

Rifampicin

Pyrazinamide

Ethambutol

#37. Ethambutol produces ocular toxicity characterized clinically by

Optic neuritis and red-green color blindness

Cataract

Glaucoma

Corneal opacity

#38. Which drug is used in combination for the treatment of Johne’s disease (Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis) in valuable breeding animals?

Clofazimine and Rifampicin

Penicillin and Streptomycin

Metronidazole

Triclabendazole

#39. Streptomycin, historically used as a first-line antitubercular drug, belongs to which class?

Aminoglycosides

Macrolides

Lincosamides

Polypeptides

#40. Pyrazinamide is most active against Mycobacterium at which intracellular environment?

Acidic pH inside phagolysosomes

Alkaline extracellular fluid

Neutral cytosol

Hypertonic tissue

#41. Which antineoplastic drug causes pulmonary fibrosis as a major adverse effect?

Bleomycin

Cisplatin

Methotrexate

Actinomycin D

#42. Canine Transmissible Venereal Tumor (CTVT) is most effectively treated with which chemotherapeutic agent?

Vincristine sulfate

Cyclophosphamide

Doxorubicin

Cisplatin

#43. Cisplatin causes severe, fatal acute pulmonary edema and pleural effusion in which species?

Dogs

Cats

Cattle

Horses

#44. Cyclophosphamide therapy in dogs may induce hemorrhagic cystitis due to the metabolite

Acrolein

Phosphoramide mustard

Normustard

Mesna

#45. Which chemotherapeutic drug acts as an antimetabolite by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase?

Methotrexate

Fluorouracil

Cytarabine

Azathioprine

#46. Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) cardiotoxicity in dogs is primarily mediated by

Free radical generation and lipid peroxidation

Histamine release

Inhibition of Na-K ATPase

Calcium channel blockade

#47. Vincristine and Vinblastine arrest cell division at which phase of mitosis?

Metaphase

Prophase

Anaphase

Telophase

#48. Which alkylating agent is widely used orally in veterinary oncology for lymphoma and mast cell tumors?

Chlorambucil

L-Asparaginase

Hydroxyurea

Dacarbazine

#49. Which antitrematodal drug is active against BOTH immature and mature flukes (Fasciola hepatica)?

Thiabendazole

Triclabendazole

Niclosamide

Pyrantel

#50. Lithium antimony thiomalate (Anthiomaline) is the drug of choice for treating

Acute fasciolosis

Nasal Schistosomosis (Schistosoma nasale)

Amphistomosis

Toxocariosis

#51. Drug of choice for acute immature amphistomosis (paramphistomosis) in sheep and cattle is

Oxyclozanide

Praziquantel

Ivermectin

Piperazine

#52. Praziquantel is highly effective against cestodes and trematodes by causing

Influx of calcium ions and spastic paralysis

Inhibition of tubulin polymerization

GABA hyperpolarization

Cholinesterase inhibition

#53. Niclosamide is primarily used as an anthelmintic agent against

Tapeworms (Cestodes)

Flukes (Trematodes)

Roundworms (Nematodes)

Protozoa

#54. Which drug is effective against mature liver flukes and also possesses uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation mechanism?

Oxyclozanide

Fenbandazole

Piperazine

Levamisole

#55. Rafoxanide is a salicylanilide anthelmintic highly effective against

Fasciola hepatica and Haemonchus contortus

Tapeworms

Coccidia

Trypanosomes

#56. Which anticestodal drug is safe for dogs and cats and causes complete destruction of tapeworm scolex and proglottids?

Praziquantel

Albendazole

Metronidazole

Sulfadimidine

#57. Fenbendazole is a more potent anthelmintic than thiabendazole because

Fenbendazole is slowly absorbed in GI tract due to low water solubility

Thiabendazole is insoluble

Difference in formulation

GI tract acts as lipid barrier

#58. Ivermectin acts as an anthelmintic by enhancing the action of which neurotransmitter?

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glutamate-gated Cl channels

Acetylcholine

Dopamine

Serotonin

#59. Which anthelmintic acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent causing spastic paralysis in nematodes?

Levamisole / Pyrantel pamoate

Ivermectin

Albendazole

Piperazine

#60. Piperazine causes flaccid paralysis of roundworms (Ascarids) by acting as an agonist at

GABA receptors

Nicotinic receptors

Muscarinic receptors

Adrenergic receptors

#61. Which benzimidazole anthelminthic is contraindicated in pregnant animals during early gestation due to teratogenic risk?

Albendazole

Fenchlorphos

Praziquantel

Piperazine

#62. Macrocyclic lactones (Ivermectin, Moxidectin) are ineffective against which parasite groups?

Trematodes and Cestodes

Nematodes

Lice

Mites

#63. Levamisole also possesses immunomodulatory properties by stimulating

T-lymphocyte proliferation and phagocytosis

B-cell death

Histamine release

Complement inhibition

#64. Morantel tartrate is a safe oral anthelmintic commonly used in lactating dairy cattle because of

Zero or minimal milk withdrawal period

High tissue accumulation

Long half-life

Injectable route

#65. The drug of choice and dose rate for treating Hepatozoon canis infection in dogs is

Trimethoprim 15mg/kg

Pyrimethamine 0.25mg/kg

Clindamycin 10mg/kg

Imidocarb dipropionate 5mg/kg

#66. Buparvaquone is the drug of choice for the treatment of

Trypanosomiosis

Babesiosis

Theileriosis (Theileria annulata)

Coccidiosis

#67. Diminazene aceturate (Berenil) is highly effective against which blood protozoan parasite?

Babesia species

Theileria species

Eimeria species

Anaplasma species

#68. Amprolium acts as an anticoccidial agent by competing structurally with which vitamin?

Thiamine (Vitamin B1)

Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)

Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

Folic acid

#69. Which antiprotozoal drug is used for curative and prophylactic treatment of Surra (Trypanosoma evansi) in camels and cattle?

Quinapyramine sulfate / chloride

Metronidazole

Amprolium

Monensin

#70. Monensin and Lasalocid are polyether ionophore antibiotics used in poultry as

Anticoccidials

Anthelmintics

Antifungals

Antivirals

#71. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating anaerobic protozoal infections such as

Giardia and Trichomonas

Babesia

Theileria

Plasmodium

#72. Toltrazuril acts against coccidia by interfering with

Nuclear division and schizogony / gametogony stages

Cell wall peptidoglycan

Folic acid synthesis

GABA receptors

#73. Which ectoparasiticide class induces CNS depression by acting as an alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonist in ticks and mites?

Amitraz

Cypermethrin

Fipronil

Imidacloprid

#74. Cypermethrin and Deltamethrin belong to which class of synthetic insecticides?

Synthetic pyrethroids

Organophosphates

Carbamates

Chlorinated hydrocarbons

#75. Fipronil acts as a broad-spectrum insecticide/acaricide by blocking

GABA-gated chloride channels

Acetylcholinesterase

Sodium channels

Octopamine receptors

#76. Organophosphate toxicity in domestic animals is caused by irreversible inhibition of

Acetylcholinesterase enzyme

Monoamine oxidase

Cytochrome P450

Sodium-potassium ATPase

#77. The specific antidote used to reactivate acetylcholinesterase in organophosphate poisoning is

Atropine sulfate and 2-PAM (Pralidoxime)

Methylene blue

BAL

EDTA

#78. Imidacloprid is a neonicotinoid insecticide highly effective against fleas in dogs by targeting

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

GABA receptors

G-protein coupled receptors

Histamine receptors

#79. Permethrin is highly toxic and contraindicated in which domestic species?

Cats

Dogs

Cattle

Horses

#80. Isoxazoline class ectoparasiticides (Afetalaner, Fluralaner, Sarolaner) are administered orally in dogs to control

Fleas and Ticks

Tapeworms

Liver flukes

Roundworms

#81. Which of the following methods is most commonly used to quantify antibiotic residues in milk?

High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)

Agar Gel Immuno-diffusion Test

Gas Chromatography

Fluorescent Polarization Assay

#82. Presence of chloramphenicol residue in milk is prohibited because it causes

Aplastic anemia in humans

Hepatotoxicity

Nephrotoxicity

Cardiomyopathy

#83. When a dairy animal is administered systemic antibiotics, the milk should be discarded for a minimum withdrawal period of

24 hours

36 hours

48 hours

72 hours

#84. Difficulties are experienced in the curdling and ripening of cheese if milk contains

Antibiotic residue

Pesticide residue

Insecticide residue

All of the above

#85. Drugs concentrate more in milk if they are

Weakly acidic

Weakly basic

Strongly acidic

Strongly basic

#86. Which test is used to detect penicillin / beta-lactam antibiotic residues in milk rapidly at farm level?

Delvotest / Disc assay

Hansa test

Baudouin test

Rosalic acid test

#87. Post-antibiotic effect (PAE) is most pronounced with which class of antimicrobials?

Aminoglycosides and Fluoroquinolones

Penicillins

Sulfonamides

Cephalosporins

#88. Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) is defined as

Lowest concentration of antimicrobial that inhibits visible growth of organism

Highest toxic dose

Dose that kills 50% bacteria

Lethal dose in vivo

#89. Metronidazole is highly effective in anaerobic bacterial infections because it is activated by

Nitroreductase enzyme in anaerobic environment

Aerobic oxidation

Cytochrome P450

Glucuronidation

#90. Which drug acts as both an anthelmintic (anti-cestodal/anti-trematodal) and antiprotozoal agent?

Albendazole

Metronidazole

Diminazene

Niclosamide

#91. The combination of Sulfamethoxazole and Trimethoprim shows antibacterial synergy due to

Sequential blockade of folic acid synthesis pathway

Cell wall destruction

Protein synthesis inhibition

DNA cleavage

#92. An example of a bactericidal antibiotic that acts in a concentration-dependent manner is

Gentamicin

Tetracycline

Erythromycin

Sulfadiazine

#93. Which generation of cephalosporins has the greatest activity against Gram-negative bacteria including Pseudomonas?

Third / Fourth generation

First generation

Second generation

None

#94. Tiamulin is a pleuromutilin antibiotic widely used in swine to treat

Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae)

Anthrax

Black quarter

Foot and mouth disease

#95. Florfenicol differs from chloramphenicol chemically by substitution of a fluorine atom, which prevents

Bacterial chloramphenicol acetyltransferase (CAT) resistance

Renal excretion

Hepatic metabolism

Absorption

#96. Enrofloxacin should be used with caution in growing puppies because it can cause

Articular cartilage erosion / arthropathy

Ototoxicity

Aplastic anemia

Hepatitis

#97. Procaine Penicillin G is formulated to achieve

Prolonged absorption and extended duration of action

Rapid peak intravenous concentration

Enhanced oral absorption

BBB penetration

#98. Neomycin is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and is therefore used orally for

Enteric bacterial infections and bowel sterilization

Systemic septicemia

Pneumonia

Mastitis

#99. Which antifungal drug acts by inhibiting 1,3-beta-D-glucan synthesis in the fungal cell wall?

Caspofungin (Echinocandins)

Amphotericin B

Griseofulvin

Flucytosine

#100. The drug of choice for treating Canine Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) is

Sodium stibogluconate (Antimonials) / Meglumine antimoniate

Metronidazole

Ivermectin

Praziquantel

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