OPSC PCS VAS 2018 PAPER 1-veterinary science

Results

QUIZ START

#1. Complex symmetry occurs in which of the following viruses?

Bacteriophage

TMV

Influenza virus

Pox Virus

#2. The type of lenses employed in an electron microscope are:

Glass lenses

Quartz lenses

Optical fibres

Electromagnetic fields

#3. Latency is a typical biological feature of viruses belonging to the family:

Adenoviridae

Herpesviridae

Paramyxoviridae

Circoviridae

#4. Who is regarded as the Father of Microbiology?

Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

Edward Jenner

Peter Medawar

Robert Koch

#5. The antiviral activity of interferons is primarily mediated by the inhibition of viral:

Attachment

Transcription

Translation

Elongation

#6. Which of the following is NOT a recognized virulence factor of bacteria?

Capsule

Fimbriae

Exoenzymes

Cilia

#7. The CAMP test is widely employed for the presumptive identification and differentiation of:

Staphylococcus species

Streptococcus species (Streptococcus agalactiae)

Corynebacterium species

Serratia species

#8. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic property of a bacterial plasmid?

Double-stranded DNA

Circular molecule

Replicates autonomously

Essential for the basic survival of the bacterium

#9. The genome of an individual virus particle is composed of:

RNA only

DNA only

Either RNA or DNA, but never both

Both RNA and DNA simultaneously

#10. The McFadyean reaction (polychrome methylene blue staining) is employed for the rapid presumptive diagnosis of:

Anthrax

Pasteurellosis

Black quarter

Viral diarrhoea

#11. The most common culture medium employed to grow fungi in the laboratory is:

Sabouraud dextrose agar

Blood agar at pH 5.6

Nutrient agar at pH 7.6

Milk agar

#12. Which type of vaccine carries the inherent biological potential for reversion to full virulence?

Killed vaccines

Live-vectored vaccines

Attenuated live vaccines

Recombinant subunit vaccines

#13. Which group of bacteria exhibits active motility without possessing external flagella?

Vibrio

Bacilli

Streptococci

Spirochetes (axial filaments)

#14. Unstained live Leptospiral organisms can be visualized directly under which type of microscopy?

Bright-field microscopy

Fluorescent microscopy

Dark-field microscopy

Electron microscopy

#15. The major immunoglobulin class predominantly produced during a secondary (anamnestic) immune response is:

IgG

IgA

IgD

IgM

#16. Natural active immunity in animals is acquired through:

Ingestion of colostrum

Parenteral vaccination

Natural infection and recovery

Synthetic antigen injection

#17. The standard biological source of complement used in the Complement Fixation Test (CFT) is:

Rabbit serum

Chicken serum

Dog serum

Guinea pig serum

#18. Which of the following is a classic thermoprecipitation test employed for the post-mortem diagnosis of anthrax?

Weil-Felix reaction

Ascoli's test

Anton's test

Coombs test

#19. Hepatic damage caused by migrating immature liver flukes (Fasciola hepatica) is the key predisposing factor for:

Malignant oedema

Braxy

Gas gangrene

Black disease (Infectious necrotic hepatitis)

#20. Which of the following obligate intracellular microorganisms is considered an ‘energy parasite’ (lacking ATP synthesis)?

Rickettsia

Mycoplasma

Chlamydia

Mycobacteria

#21. The standard quantitative serological test used for confirming Brucella abortus infection in cattle is the:

Plate agglutination test

Standard tube agglutination test (STAT)

Coombs test

Indirect hemagglutination test

#22. The specific localized structural regions on an antigen against which antibody paratopes are directed are called:

Paratopes

Epitopes (Antigenic determinants)

Idiotopes

Antitopes

#23. A segmented RNA genome is characteristically present in which of the following animal viruses?

Influenza virus

Foot-and-mouth disease virus

Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus

Newcastle disease virus

#24. Hemorrhagic (red) infarcts are most commonly observed in organs with dual blood supply or loose tissue, such as:

Liver

Kidneys

Lungs

Heart

#25. Malignant anaplastic tumor cells typically exhibit an abnormal nuclear-to-cytoplasmic (N:C) ratio of approximately:

1:1

1:4

1:6

1:12

#26. In the biological process of programmed cell death (apoptosis), which of the following features is distinctly ABSENT?

Chromatin condensation

Formation of apoptotic bodies

Cell shrinkage

Inflammatory cellular reaction

#27. Which circulating leukocyte is characteristically found in significantly elevated numbers during parasitic helminth infections?

Eosinophil

Neutrophil

Basophil

Lymphocyte

#28. Which essential trace metal plays a pivotal role in collagen synthesis, epithelialization, and wound healing?

Iron

Zinc

Copper

Cobalt

#29. The pathological stage of ‘Grey hepatisation’ of lungs in lobar pneumonia is attributed to:

Dense leukocytic (neutrophilic) infiltration and fibrin accumulation in alveoli

Active red blood cell extravasation in alveoli

Atelectasis of the lung parenchyma

Alveolar emphysema

#30. Which morphological type of exudative inflammation is NOT seen in the brain parenchyma?

Fibrinous inflammation

Catarrhal inflammation

Purulent inflammation

Hemorrhagic inflammation

#31. In chronic gastric diseases and intrinsic factor deficiency, the typical morphological type of anemia observed is:

Microcytic normochromic

Macrocytic normochromic / megaloblastic anemia

Aplastic anemia

Microcytic hypochromic anemia

#32. ‘White spotted kidney’ observed in calves at necropsy is histologically characterized by:

Diffuse interstitial nephritis

Glomerulonephritis

Embolic suppurative nephritis

Focal non-suppurative interstitial nephritis

#33. The adult parasitic roundworm commonly found residing within the right ventricle and pulmonary artery of dogs is:

Onchocerca armillata

Strongylus vulgaris

Spirocerca lupi

Dirofilaria immitis

#34. In the ox, uroliths causing urinary obstruction are most commonly lodged at the:

Groove of the glans penis

Distal bend of the sigmoid flexure

Neck of the urinary bladder

Renal pelvis

#35. ‘Gid’ (Sturdy) in sheep is a neurological disease caused by the larval metacestode Coenurus cerebralis of:

Setaria digitata

Echinococcus granulosus

Taenia multiceps

Taenia pisiformis

#36. ‘Panters’ (chronic heat intolerance syndrome with dyspnea) is a recognized secondary sequel in cattle recovering from:

Bluetongue

Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD)

Rinderpest

Classical swine fever

#37. Pathognomonic ‘button ulcers’ in the cecum/colon and ‘turkey egg’ petechial hemorrhages on the kidneys are seen in:

Classical swine fever (Hog cholera)

Swine pox

Vesicular exanthema of swine

Swine erysipelas

#38. Langhans-type multinucleated giant cells with peripheral horseshoe arrangement of nuclei are characteristic of:

Clostridial infections

Tuberculosis (granulomatous inflammation)

Botryomycosis

Actinobacillosis

#39. Which characteristic post-mortem lesion is found in poultry infected with velogenic viscerotropic Newcastle disease virus?

Hemorrhagic ulcers and necrosis of cecal tonsils and proventriculus

Splenomegaly without enteric lesions

Multiple necrotic foci on the liver

Bilateral pulmonary consolidation

#40. Which of the following agricultural mycotoxins is notoriously hepatotoxic and carcinogenic in livestock?

Ochratoxin

Trichothecenes

Aflatoxins (Aspergillus flavus)

Citrinin

#41. Which nutritional deficiency disorder in chicks is caused by oxidative rancidity of polyunsaturated fatty acids destroying Vitamin E?

Rickets

Nutritional encephalomalacia (Crazy chick disease)

Curled toe paralysis

Foot pad dermatitis

#42. Pathognomonic intranuclear eosinophilic inclusion bodies within tracheal syncytial epithelial cells are characteristic of:

Fowl pox

Infectious Laryngotracheitis (ILT)

Inclusion Body Hepatitis

Infectious Bronchitis

#43. Avian colisepticemia caused by pathogenic Escherichia coli is macroscopically characterized by:

Fibrinous perihepatitis and pericarditis

Necrotic hepatitis

Hemorrhagic liver

Diffuse fatty liver

#44. Severe acute cecal coccidiosis in growing poultry chicks with bloody droppings is caused by:

Eimeria necatrix

Eimeria acervulina

Eimeria tenella

Eimeria brunetti

#45. The ultra-short surgical anesthetic action of intravenous thiopentone sodium is terminated within minutes primarily due to:

Rapid tissue redistribution from brain to muscle and adipose tissue

Hepatic first-pass metabolism

Renal tubular excretion

Accelerated biliary biotransformation

#46. In a classical pharmacological log dose-response curve, the relationship is approximately linear within which response range?

20% to 80% of maximal response

10% to 90% of maximal response

40% to 60% of maximal response

45% to 55% of maximal response

#47. Insulin receptors belong to which structural and functional family of cell surface receptors?

Type III (Enzyme-linked tyrosine kinase receptors)

Type IV (Nuclear receptors)

Type I (G-protein coupled receptors)

Type II (Ligand-gated ion channels)

#48. Which muscarinic anticholinergic agent is administered transdermally to control motion sickness and CTZ-mediated emesis?

Apomorphine

Scopolamine (Hyoscine)

Prochlorperazine

Ondansetron

#49. The primary cholinergic receptors present at the motor endplate of skeletal muscle fibers are:

Nm (Nicotinic muscle-type) receptors

Nn (Nicotinic neural-type) receptors

M1 muscarinic receptors

M2 muscarinic receptors

#50. Which of the following compounds is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic acting at the collecting tubule?

Mannitol

Chlorothiazide

Amiloride

Caffeine

#51. The anabolic growth-promoting and skeletal actions of Growth Hormone are primarily mediated peripherally by:

Somatomedins (Insulin-like Growth Factors / IGF-1)

Somatostatins

Cyclic GMP

Phospholipase C

#52. The specific chemical and pharmacological antidote used for the reversal of heparin overdose is:

Warfarin

Protamine sulphate

Pindone

Atropine

#53. Which of the following is an oral sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic drug used in managing non-insulin dependent diabetes?

Exogenous insulin

Gliclazide

Carbimazole

Prednisolone

#54. Which of the following pharmacological agents is a selective beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonist (cardioselective beta-blocker)?

Isoproterenol

Propranolol

Atenolol

Prazosin

#55. The primary pharmacological determinants governing the systemic bioavailability of an orally administered drug are:

Rheological parameters of circulating blood

Total volume of gastric contents

Extent of gastrointestinal absorption and hepatic first-pass metabolism

Renal glomerular filtration rate

#56. Which of the following is a distinguishing pharmaceutical characteristic of the intramuscular (IM) route of drug administration?

Only aqueous solutions can be administered

Oily suspensions and depot formulations can be safely injected

Hypertonic electrolyte solutions can be freely infused

Systemic absorption develops significantly slower than oral administration

#57. Which anthelmintic is considered the flukicide of choice against both mature and early immature stages of Fasciola hepatica?

Triclabendazole

Praziquantel

Pyrantel pamoate

Levamisole

#58. Crystal violet, the primary stain used in the differential Gram staining procedure, is chemically:

A basic, water-soluble triphenylmethane dye

A lipid-soluble acidic stain

A low molecular weight fluorescent dye

A non-polar counterstain

#59. The glucocorticoid-induced cellular protein that directly inhibits Phospholipase A2 and arachidonic acid release is:

Calmodulin

Mx protein

Phospholamban

Annexin-1 (Lipocortin-1)

#60. Which gaseous retrograde neurotransmitter is intimately involved in long-term potentiation and synaptic plasticity in memory?

Acetylcholine

Dopamine

Nitric oxide (NO)

5-Hydroxytryptamine (Serotonin)

#61. The time interval between the initial infection of a host by a parasite and the first clinical onset of symptoms is the:

Prepatent period

Biological incubation period

Patent period

Clinical incubation period

#62. The embryonated eggs of which avian cecal nematode transmit Histomonas meleagridis (Blackhead disease) in turkeys?

Ascaridia galli

Gongylonema ingluvicola

Heterakis gallinarum

Syngamus trachea

#63. Quantitative determination of fecal worm egg counts (EPG) in veterinary parasitology is standardly performed using the:

Harada-Mori method

Fecal coproculture technique

McMaster counting chamber method

Willis flotation technique

#64. Which hematophagous muscid fly with piercing proboscis is commonly referred to as the ‘Stable fly’?

Tabanus striatus

Stomoxys calcitrans

Haematopota chrysops

Musca autumnalis

#65. Pustular demodicosis (follicular mange) in dogs with secondary staphylococcal infection typically causes:

Psoroptic otitis

Sarcoptic scabies

Demodectic acnodermatitis / Sebaceous adenitis

Notoedric mange

#66. Biting midges of the genus Culicoides (e.g., Culicoides austeni) act as biological transmission vectors for:

Yellow fever virus

Dengue fever virus

Bluetongue virus and African Horse Sickness virus

Rift Valley fever virus

#67. The classical three-host ixodid tick vector responsible for transmitting Theileria annulata in India is:

Boophilus annulatus

Rhipicephalus appendiculatus

Hyalomma anatolicum

Amblyomma integrum

#68. The specialized ‘Hodge’s garbage trap’ is historically employed in veterinary entomology to capture and sample:

Stomoxys calcitrans

Tabanus flies

Musca domestica (Houseflies)

Haematobia irritans

#69. Koch’s blue bodies observed in Giemsa-stained lymph node aspirates during Theileria infections represent the:

Sporozoites

Oocysts

Macrogametocytes

Macroschizonts (Megaloschizonts)

#70. ‘Red water disease’ in cattle is a common field synonym for acute intravascular hemolysis caused by:

Theileriosis

Bovine Babesiosis (Babesia bigemina)

Anaplasmosis

Toxoplasmosis

#71. The non-motile, intracellular amastigote stage (Leishman-Donovan body) is characteristic of:

Trypanosoma evansi

Trypanosoma equiperdum

Trypanosoma equinum

Leishmania donovani

#72. The chemical laboratory reagent routinely used in coprology for sporulation of coccidian Eimeria oocysts is:

1% Potassium dichromate

2% Potassium dichromate

2.5% Potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7)

10% Potassium dichromate

#73. The characteristic ‘Maltese cross’ intraerythrocytic tetrad merozoite arrangement is diagnostic of:

Babesia bigemina

Babesia caballi

Babesia bovis

Babesia equi (Theileria equi)

#74. Which trematode oviduct fluke causes the production of abnormal, soft-shelled, or shell-less eggs in poultry?

Raillietina tetragona

Ascaridia galli

Prosthogonimus ovatus (Prosthogonimus pellucidus)

Subulura brumpti

#75. Neurocysticercosis in human beings is caused by ingesting:

Fresh raw vegetables/salads contaminated with Taenia solium eggs

Undercooked pork containing viable cysticerci

Both fecal egg contamination and raw pork ingestion

Undercooked beef containing cysticerci

#76. The drug of choice for the treatment of bovine nasal schistosomiasis (‘Snoring disease’) caused by Schistosoma nasale is:

Lithium antimony thiomalate (Anthiomaline)

Albendazole

Ivermectin

Fenbendazole

#77. The immunologically mediated ‘Self-cure phenomenon’ (rapid expulsion of adult worms following new larval challenge) occurs in:

Ostertagia ostertagi

Haemonchus contortus

Nematodirus spathiger

Trichostrongylus axei

#78. In domestic female animals, the fertile lifespan of deposited spermatozoa is physiologically longest within the:

Cervix and cervical crypts

Vaginal lumen

Uterine cavity

Fallopian tubes (oviducts)

#79. The long-term reproductive and breeding prognosis for bulls exhibiting conformational structural unsoundness of the hind legs is:

Good

Fair

Poor (causes mounting failure)

Questionable

#80. Embryologically, the bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands and prostate gland develop from the:

Genital tubercle

Definitive Urogenital sinus

Genital fold

Genital swelling

#81. The characteristic vocalization known as ‘Neighing’ is observed in which domestic animal?

Bull

Ram

Stallion (Equines)

Boar

#82. Enormous, prominent, cylindrical bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands that produce the gelatinous fraction of semen are found in the:

Bull

Dog

Boar

Stallion

#83. The average total volume of semen per normal single ejaculate in the stallion is approximately:

5 to 6 ml

8 to 9 ml

15 to 30 ml

60 to 100 ml (up to 150 ml)

#84. The pH of seminal plasma is slightly alkaline (pH 7.2 to 7.8) in which domestic species?

Boar

Bull

Ram

Buck

#85. Twinning and twin pregnancy is a recognized major physiological cause of non-infectious abortion in:

Cows

Ewes

Mares

Does

#86. Which specialized diagnostic clinical test is used to evaluate the anatomical patency of the Fallopian tubes (oviducts)?

Rubin's uterotubal insufflation test

Cuboni urinary estrogen test

Aschheim-Zondek bioassay

Rabbit ovulation test

#87. Posterior longitudinal presentation of the fetus during natural parturition occurs most frequently in polytocous:

Sows

Cows

Does

Mares

#88. A dystocia presentation wherein the fetal head is bent downward towards the sternum between the forelimbs is termed:

Breech presentation

Vertex (Poll) presentation

Dog-sitting posture

Transverse presentation

#89. Under artificial insemination management, the ideal routine frequency of semen collection from healthy breeding bulls is:

Once a week

Twice a week (with two ejaculates per collection day)

Three times a week

Four times a week

#90. The average age at which ewe lambs reach puberty and first display estrus is approximately:

8 to 12 months

20 months

22 months

6 months

#91. The optimum age for the first fertile breeding of well-grown dairy heifers under Indian conditions is:

10 to 12 months

18 to 22 months (when attaining 65% adult body weight)

30 months

32 months

#92. Micturition posture, elevation of the tail, and rhythmic ‘winking of the clitoris’ are overt signs of estrus in:

Sows

Cows

Mares

Ewes

#93. A characteristic raspy, rough, granular ‘cobblestone’ surface of the vaginal mucosa is clinically observed in cows affected with:

Trichomoniasis (Tritrichomonas foetus)

Vibriosis

Brucellosis

Leptospirosis

#94. Early embryonic death, irregular returns to service, and post-coital pyometra in heifers are classic signs of:

Bovine Tritrichomoniasis

Campylobacteriosis

Brucellosis

Leptospirosis

#95. A marked peripheral leukocytosis with a pronounced ‘degenerative left shift’ is a typical hematological finding in bitches with:

Endometritis

Vaginitis

Cystic Endometrial Hyperplasia - Pyometra Complex

Cervicitis

#96. The therapeutic dose rate of natural Prostaglandin F2 alpha (Dinoprost) used in managing open-cervix pyometra in bitches is:

1.0 mg/kg body weight

2.0 mg/kg body weight

100 to 250 micrograms/kg body weight subcutaneously

5.0 mg/kg body weight

#97. Under normal physiological conditions, how many Graafian follicles typically mature and ovulate per estrus in the dairy cow?

One (monovular species)

Two

Three

Four

#98. In the bovine estrous cycle, ovarian follicular dynamics typically proceed in:

A single continuous wave

Two or three successive follicular waves

Four discrete waves

Six disorganized waves

#99. During ovarian follicular steroidogenesis, the theca interna cells of the follicle are stimulated to produce androgens by:

FSH

LH (Luteinizing Hormone)

Estradiol

Prolactin

#100. Spontaneous ovulation in the dairy cow takes place approximately:

6 to 10 hours after the onset of estrus

12 to 14 hours after the end (cessation) of estrus

6 to 10 hours before the end of estrus

12 to 14 hours before the end of estrus

#101. The physiological flushing medium standardly employed for non-surgical bovine embryo recovery is:

TCM 199

Sterile normal saline

Dulbecco's Phosphate Buffered Saline (DPBS) supplemented with BSA

Ringer's Lactate solution

#102. In bovine embryo transfer technology (MOET), non-surgical uterine embryo recovery is routinely performed on which day post-insemination?

Day 2 to 3

Day 4 to 5

Day 6 to 8 (optimally Day 7 morula/blastocyst)

Day 10 to 12

#103. True and pseudo-hermaphroditism is genetically and phenotypically most common in which domestic species?

Mares

Cows

Goats (associated with the Polled gene)

Bitches

#104. The intravenous or intramuscular therapeutic dose of Luteinizing Hormone (LH) / hCG for treating follicular cysts in dairy cows is:

1000 IU

1500 IU

2000 to 3000 IU

3000 to 5000 IU (or up to 10,000 IU)

#105. The phenomenon of ‘Silent estrus’ (subestrus without behavioral signs) is an economically significant problem in:

Dairy cows

Buffaloes (Bubalus bubalis)

Mares

Bitches

#106. Which steroid hormone is responsible for preparing and transforming the uterine endometrium for blastocyst implantation?

FSH

Progesterone

Estradiol-17beta

#107. Which of the following procedures or reflexes is NOT a recognized diagnostic estrus detection aid in livestock?

Teaser bull with chin-ball marker

Ferguson's reflex (neuroendocrine Ferguson reflex during parturition)

Standing-to-be-mounted reflex

Visual behavioral observation

#108. The obstetrical term ‘Eutocia’ is defined as:

Normal, smooth, and physiological parturition

Difficult or obstructed labor

Spontaneous abortion

Early embryonic resorption

#109. The placenta of the domestic cow is classified anatomically and morphologically as:

Zonary placenta

Discoid placenta

Diffuse placenta

Cotyledonary syndesmochorial placenta

#110. High-producing dairy cows immediately postpartum suffer from parturient hypocalcemia (Milk fever) primarily due to:

Acute ketonemia

Relative parathyroid gland insufficiency and sudden calcium drainage into colostrum

Lactation tetany

Metabolic alkalosis

#111. The flukicide of choice highly effective in the clinical treatment of acute immature amphistomiasis (paramphistomosis) is:

Praziquantel

Albendazole

Fenchlorphos

Oxyclozanide

#112. Oozing of unclotted, dark tarry blood from all natural body orifices post-mortem is pathognomonic for:

Tetanus

Enterotoxemia

Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)

Bluetongue

#113. Under field clinical examination, the degree of systemic dehydration in cattle is most rapidly and accurately assessed by the:

Packed cell volume (PCV)

Skin tent / skin fold test and eyeball recession

Total serum protein estimation

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

#114. A severe acute systemic disease state characterized by high hyperthermia, toxemia, and active microbial multiplication in the blood is:

Fever

Bacteremia

Toxemia

Septicemia

#115. Recurrent chronic tympany combined with the passage of scanty, pasty, gruel-like feces in cattle is indicative of:

Simple indigestion

Grain overload (ruminal acidosis)

Vagus indigestion (Hoflund's syndrome)

Abomasal ulceration

#116. The therapeutic oral antacid of choice for treating acute lactic acidosis (grain engorgement) in goats and sheep is:

Sodium bicarbonate (1 g/kg orally)

Sodium chloride

Sodium sulphate

Magnesium sulphate

#117. A painful, expiratory grunt heard synchronously with the second phase of reticular contraction in cattle indicates:

Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (Acute local peritonitis)

Chronic local peritonitis

Acute diffuse peritonitis

Traumatic pericarditis

#118. The major and earliest clinical respiratory finding detected during the initial congestion stage of bovine pneumonia is:

Polypnea (rapid shallow respiration)

Severe expiratory dyspnea

Hyperthermia

Moist rales and pleuritic friction rubs

#119. The primary definitive and lifesaving therapy of choice in bacterial bronchopneumonia of feedlot cattle is:

Humidified oxygen therapy

Central respiratory stimulants

Inhaled bronchodilators

Systemic broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy

#120. A distinctive ‘slab-sided’ appearance of the right flank accompanied by a sunken left paralumbar fossa is seen in:

Left abomasal displacement (LDA)

Right abomasal displacement (RDA)

Anterior abomasal torsion

Vagus indigestion

#121. Chronic dietary excess of molybdenum in cattle pastures induces secondary copper deficiency, resulting in severe:

Bronchitis

Abomasal impaction

Rhinitis

Persistent watery diarrhea / severe enteritis (Teart disease)

#122. Which trace mineral deficiency in cattle causes failure of propionate utilization, wasting disease, and chronic inappetence?

Copper

Cobalt (essential for ruminal B12 synthesis)

Zinc

Iron

#123. Nyctalopia (night blindness) and xerophthalmia in calves with hypovitaminosis A are fundamentally caused by:

Failure of regeneration of the visual purple (Rhodopsin)

Degeneration and failure of resynthesis of visual purple in rod cells

Elevated CSF pressure

Epithelial keratinization of cornea

#124. The standard therapeutic dose of Vitamin A per kg body weight administered to treat clinical hypovitaminosis A in cattle is:

40 IU/kg

44 IU/kg

400 IU/kg

440 IU/kg (or 400-500 IU/kg body weight)

#125. The specific emergency intravenous therapy for dairy cows suffering from Post-Parturient Hemoglobinuria (PPH) is:

Calcium borogluconate

Magnesium sulphate

Sodium acid phosphate (60 g in 300 ml sterile water IV)

Copper sulphate

#126. Widespread petechial hemorrhages on the visible mucous membranes and severe submandibular edema in cattle are classic signs of:

Hemorrhagic Septicemia (Pasteurella multocida)

Anaplasmosis

Surra (Trypanosomiasis)

Babesiosis

#127. Extensive acute intravascular hemolysis of erythrocytes leading to severe hemoglobinuria and anemia is pathognomonic of:

Bovine Babesiosis (Babesia bigemina)

Trypanosoma evansi infection

Anaplasma marginale infection

All of the above tick-borne diseases

#128. The drug of choice for the treatment of Moniezia tapeworm infestation in sheep and lambs is:

Albendazole / Praziquantel

Praziquantel

Levamisole

Rafoxanide

#129. The definitive specific antiprotozoal drug of choice for treating acute Theileria annulata infection in crossbred cattle is:

Oxytetracycline

Quinapyramine prosalt

Diminazene aceturate

Buparvaquone (2.5 mg/kg IM)

#130. Which of the following domestic farm animals is considered relatively resistant to natural Mycobacterium bovis tuberculosis?

Cattle

Goats

Pigs

Sheep

#131. Acarodermatitis (mange) in domestic livestock and companion animals is caused by infestations of:

Ascarid roundworms

Parasitic Ticks and Mites (Acari)

Dermatophilus bacteria

Microsporum fungi

#132. Puppies severely affected with acute Canine Parvovirus-2 (CPV-2) infection predominantly die due to:

Simple dehydration

Severe dehydration, enterotoxemia, and septic shock from hemorrhagic enteritis

Acute gastritis alone

Acute viral myocarditis and shock

#133. Which of the following skull bones is a classic anatomical example of sutural (Wormian) bones?

Inter-frontal bones

Parietal bone

Inter-chondral bones

Sphenoid bone

#134. The acromion process extends to and terminates at the level of the glenoid cavity on the scapular spine in:

The ox

The sheep

The horse

The dog

#135. A specialized bone that develops within a tendon or over a joint surface (such as the patella) is termed a:

Os cordis

Sesamoid bone

Sutural bone

Splint bone

#136. In the equine pelvic limb, the massive large third metatarsal bone is anatomically termed the:

First metatarsal

Second metatarsal (splint)

Cannon bone (Large metatarsal)

Fifth metatarsal

#137. Cranial and caudal costal demifacets for articulation with the heads of ribs are located on the bodies of:

Atlas vertebra

5th cervical vertebra

1st to 13th Thoracic (Dorsal) vertebrae

Lumbar vertebrae

#138. A prominent ventral bony crest known as the ‘Keel’ (carina) is a major anatomical feature of the sternum in:

Fowl (Birds)

Sheep

Horse

#139. Which cervical epaxial muscle functionally replaces the dorsal ligamentous structure in the neck region?

Longus colli

Longissimus dorsi

Serratus ventralis

Complexus (Semispinalis capitis)

#140. The large quadrilateral-shaped extensor muscle complex covering the cranial and lateral aspects of the thigh is the:

Quadriceps femoris

Biceps brachii

Sartorius

Biceps femoris

#141. Anatomically, the true apex of the mammalian heart is formed entirely by the muscular tip of the:

Right atrium

Left atrium

Right ventricle

Left ventricle

#142. The arterial cerebral arterial circle (‘Circle of Willis’) on the ventral surface of the brain receives major blood from the:

Internal maxillary artery

Rete mirabile cerebri and internal carotid artery

Middle cerebral artery

Basilar and cerebellar arteries

#143. Within the femoral canal, the main femoral artery gives off which major vessel that supplies the medial hindlimb?

Anterior tibial artery

Popliteal artery

Deep femoral artery

Saphenous artery

#144. Which cranial nerve provides special gustatory sensory taste fibers to the posterior one-third of the tongue?

Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII)

Glossopharyngeal nerve (Cranial Nerve IX)

Vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)

Hypoglossal nerve (Cranial Nerve XII)

#145. The large venous trunk that collects nutrient-rich blood from the stomach, spleen, and intestines and enters the liver is the:

Hepatic Portal vein

External iliac vein

Gastric vein

Posterior mesenteric vein

#146. The recurrent laryngeal nerve that innervates the intrinsic abductor muscles of the larynx is a major branch of the:

Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

Vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X)

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)

#147. Which section of the mammalian small intestine is suspended by a long mesentery and exhibits a characteristic festoon-like looping?

Duodenum

Jejunum

Cecum

Ascending colon

#148. Complete, overlapping cartilaginous tracheal rings that encircle the airway without a dorsal gap are seen in:

Sheep

Fowl (Birds)

Goats

Dogs

#149. The ‘Area cribrosa’ containing the openings of the papillary ducts is a characteristic anatomical feature on the renal papillae of:

The ox

The horse

The dog

The fowl

#150. The only accessory sex gland present in the male dog is the:

Zygomatic gland

Seminal vesicles

Prostate gland

Bulbourethral (Cowper's) gland

#151. The sigmoid flexure of the fibroelastic penis is located in a post-scrotal position in which domestic animal?

Bull

Stallion

Dog

Boar

#152. The functional left ovary resembles a distinctive cluster of spherical grapes in which species?

Domestic hen

Cock

Rabbit

Sow

#153. The crystalline lens of the developing eye is embryologically derived from which primary germ layer?

Neural ectoderm

Surface facial ectoderm

Endoderm

Head mesoderm

#154. During embryonic somite differentiation, which embryonic mesodermal subunit develops into the vertebral column and ribs?

Myotome

Nephrotome

Sclerotome

Dermatome

#155. The specialized parenchymal epithelial cells that synthesize and secrete bile in the liver lobules are:

Hepatocytes / Hepatoblasts

Steatoblasts

Odontoblasts

Kupffer cells

#156. The tall, columnar somatic supporting cells lining the basement membrane of seminiferous tubules are the:

Sertoli cells (Sustentacular cells)

Kupffer cells

Betz cells

Stave cells

#157. Which of the following pharmacological actions is INCORRECT regarding the systemic effects of atropine sulphate?

Reduces salivary secretion

Reduces tracheobronchial secretions

Decreases heart rate (produces marked bradycardia)

Reduces gastrointestinal tone and motility

#158. The phenomenon of ‘Diffusion hypoxia’ (Fink effect) during recovery from inhalation anesthesia is associated with:

Halothane

Isoflurane

Nitrous Oxide (N2O)

Sevoflurane

#159. Xylazine administration induces profound vagal bradycardia and second-degree AV block, which can be prevented by premedication with:

Yohimbine

Diazepam

Atropine sulphate

Ketamine

#160. A traumatic soft tissue wound characterized by irregular, torn, jagged margins and tissue bridges is classified as a:

Lacerated wound

Penetrating wound

Perforating wound

Gunshot wound

#161. The short-chain volatile fatty acids naturally present in bovine milk exert an inhibitory antibacterial effect against:

Clostridium species

Lactobacillus species

Bacillus species

Bifidobacterium species

#162. Dry gangrene (ischemic mummification of tissue) typically affects which anatomical structures in livestock?

Small and large intestines

Distal extremities such as tail, ears, and hooves

Massive skeletal muscle bellies

Lung lobes

#163. A double continuous inverting suture line modifying the standard Lembert suture pattern is known as the:

Cushing suture

Czerny-Lembert suture

Connell suture

Reinforced mattress suture

#164. Protracted, persistent vomiting of acidic gastric contents in small animals typically leads to:

Simple normovolemic dehydration

Severe metabolic acidosis

Hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis

Dehydration accompanied by metabolic hypochloremic alkalosis

#165. The local tissue infiltration and spreading speed of a local anesthetic solution can be safely enhanced by adding:

Hyaluronidase enzyme (spreading factor)

Adrenaline (epinephrine)

Atropine sulphate

Higher concentrated sodium chloride

#166. Epidermal vesicle, bleb, and blister formation is the hallmark of which depth of burn injury?

First-degree burn

Second-degree (partial-thickness) burn

Third-degree (full-thickness) burn

Fourth-degree charring

#167. Pentobarbitone sodium is classified pharmacologically according to its duration of general anesthesia as a:

Ultrashort-acting barbiturate

Short-to-intermediate acting barbiturate

Medium-acting barbiturate

Long-acting barbiturate

#168. Pentazocine is classified pharmacologically as a synthetic mixed agonist-antagonist:

Non-narcotic NSAID

Opioid (narcotic) analgesic

Phenothiazine sedative

Inhalation anesthetic

#169. The pathological escape and extravasation of whole blood from any part of the vascular system is termed:

Hematoma

Hemorrhage

Hemangioma

Purpura

#170. Surgical desensitization and local nerve block of the upper lip and external naris on the ipsilateral side is achieved by an:

Supraorbital nerve block

Infraorbital nerve block

Mental nerve block

Mandibular alveolar nerve block

#171. A drug-induced reversible state of profound central depression, sleep, and unconsciousness accompanied by analgesia is:

Hypnosis

Narcosis

General anesthesia

Deep sedation

#172. A congenital dentigerous cyst (ear tooth) in young horses is most commonly located in the subcutaneous tissue of the:

Oral cavity

Pharyngeal vault

Temporal region at the base of the ear pinna

Mandibular symphysis

#173. Extra-chromic surgical catgut suture material undergoes enzymatic degradation and complete tissue absorption in approximately:

10 days

15 days

20 days

40 days (extended profile)

#174. A traumatic bone fracture wherein the fractured bone ends communicate directly with the external environment is a:

Simple closed fracture

Compound (open) fracture

Complicated fracture

Impacted fracture

#175. The standard anatomical site for injecting local anesthetic solution to achieve cranial (high) epidural analgesia in cattle is the:

Sacrococcygeal space

First and second intercoccygeal space

Lumbosacral space (L6-S1)

Lumbosacral intervertebral foramen

#176. For rapid topical surface anesthesia of the cornea prior to tonometry or minor surgery, lignocaine is instilled at a concentration of:

#177. The professional clinical forecast or prospective judgement regarding the probable outcome and recovery from a disease is the:

Definitive diagnosis

Differential diagnosis

Prognosis

Sequela

#178. In a diagnostic X-ray tube, the electron-emitting cathode filament and the focal target embedded in the copper anode are both made of:

Tungsten (W)

Lead

Copper

Molybdenum

#179. Morphine and related pure mu-opioid agonists are generally contraindicated or used with extreme caution in which species due to central mania?

Feline (Cats) and Equine (Horses)

Canines (Dogs)

Caprines (Goats)

All domestic animal species

#180. The pathological gynecological term ‘Hematosalpinx’ denotes the abnormal accumulation of extravasated blood within the:

Fallopian tube (Oviduct)

Uterine body

Uterine horns

Cervical canal

#181. A high-energy medical linear accelerator (LINAC) is the specialized therapeutic equipment required to deliver:

Diagnostic ultrasonography

Computed radiography

External beam megavoltage radiotherapy

Nuclear scintigraphy

#182. The clinical ophthalmic term ‘Trichiasis’ is defined as:

Entropion of the eyelid margin

Inward misdirection and deviation of eyelashes towards the cornea

Exophthalmos of the eyeball

Pathological pupillary dilation

#183. Which radical surgical procedure involving resection of the lateral cartilaginous wall of the ear canal is indicated for chronic otitis externa?

Operation for hematoma

Cosmetic otoplasty

Zepp's lateral ear canal resection

Ear cropping

#184. A high-resolution gamma camera (scintillation detector) is the essential electronic equipment required to perform:

B-mode ultrasonography

Computed tomography

Short-wave physiotherapy

Nuclear Scintigraphy (Radionuclide imaging)

#185. Atropine sulphate administered as an anesthetic premedicant in dogs to control secretions and bradycardia is dosed at:

0.02 to 0.04 mg/kg body weight SC/IM

0.2 mg/kg body weight

2.0 mg/kg body weight

20 mg total per dog

#186. A positive ‘Cranial Drawer Sign’ on orthopedic manipulation of the canine stifle joint is pathognomonic for rupture of the:

Elbow collateral ligaments

Carpal check ligaments

Coxofemoral joint capsule

Cranial cruciate ligament of the stifle

#187. ‘Buttress foot’ (low ringbone with prominent bulging at the coronary band) in horses develops as a chronic sequel of:

Pyramidal disease (Extensor process fracture / periostitis)

Navicular disease

Chronic laminitis

Monday morning sickness (Azoturia)

#188. Pathological periosteal new bone exostosis involving the first and second phalanges in the equine digit is termed:

Ringbone

Bobba bone

Sidebone

Splints

#189. Metaplastic ossification of the collateral (lateral) ungual cartilages of the third phalanx in horses is termed:

Ringbone

Quittor

Sidebone

Splints

#190. The pathological lesion ‘Hematoma’ is defined clinically as a localized:

Diffuse inflammatory purulent exudate

Accumulation of extravasated blood enclosed within an abnormal tissue cavity

Purulent abscess within a tendon

Spontaneous petechial hemorrhage

#191. In the Indian dairy industry, the quality and compositional standards formulated by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) for market milk are:

Voluntary / Optional guidance standards (unless mandated by FSSAI)

Statutory mandatory standards

Safety tolerance thresholds only

Academic teaching guidelines

#192. As per statutory BIS microbiological standards, the maximum permissible Standard Plate Count (SPC) of pasteurized milk per ml is:

30,000 to 50,000 CFU/ml (Grade A: <30,000)

40,000 CFU/ml

10,000 CFU/ml

35,000 CFU/ml

#193. The major enterotoxigenic pathogenic bacterium contaminating herd milk from the hands and nasopharynx of infected milk handlers is:

Streptococcus agalactiae

Staphylococcus aureus

Bacillus cereus

Micrococcus luteus

#194. Which chemical corrosion inhibitor is added to caustic alkaline detergent solutions to prevent pitting when cleaning aluminium dairy surfaces?

Sodium sulphate

Sodium metasilicate

Sodium hydroxide

Sodium carbonate

#195. During the advanced putrefaction of meat, a pronounced offensive odor and alkaline reaction develop primarily due to the microbial liberation of:

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Ammonia (NH3) and volatile amines

Hydrogen sulphide (H2S)

Methane (CH4)

#196. Stunning by the non-penetrating captive bolt system is notoriously difficult, unreliable, and least effective in:

Cattle

Sheep

Market pigs (due to thick frontal sinus bone structure)

Goats

#197. Among meat-producing food animals, which species exhibits the highest physiological susceptibility to transport-induced stress (PSE meat)?

Cattle

Sheep

Pigs (Porcine Stress Syndrome)

Goats

#198. Gaseous air pollution in the atmospheric environment surrounding coal-fired thermal electric power plants is predominantly due to:

Carbon dioxide

Sulphur dioxide (SO2)

Hydrogen sulphide

Carbon monoxide

#199. Which spore-forming, crystalliferous soil bacterium is widely utilized in the commercial formulation of agricultural bio-pesticides?

Bacillus subtilis

Bacillus thuringiensis

Bacillus cereus

Geobacillus stearothermophilus

#200. The concentrated chemical salt solution standardly employed for the commercial regeneration of exhausted Zeolite water softeners is:

Sodium chloride (NaCl brine, 10% solution)

Sodium sulphate

Sodium carbonate

Sodium bicarbonate

Finish