J & K PCS VAS Examination PAPER 2 – 2019

 

Results

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#1. The causative agent of Black Quarter is

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#2. Intravenous administration of too rapid a fluid in case of anorexia linked with pneumonia may cause death due to

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#3. A viral disease of cloven footed animals including cattle successfully eradicated from India is

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#4. Antidote of xylazine, a popular immobilizing agent used either single or in combination with other drugs for a wide variety of wild species, is

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#5. Tentatively, the period of quarantine for animal sector is

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#6. Malicious poisoning punishable under IPC section 428 and 429 include

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#7. Performance modifying substances used in race horses include:

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#8. Site of inoculation in chicken vaccinated against Fowl pox may be examined for presence of ‘take reaction’

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#9. Coccidian infections in chicken are readily confirmed by

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#10. Signs of inappetence, weakness, diarrhea, low egg production, emaciation along with enlarged bursa and/or liver in chicken aged 14-16 weeks commercial layers up to 2.0% population may lead to the suspicion of

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#11. Failure of blood to clot and absence of rigor mortis are noticed in one of the following zoonotic diseases

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#12. Minimal gestational age (days) for viability of lamb is

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#13. Vaccination of the newborn under 2 months of age has NOT been widely practiced because of the

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#14. Sepsis, usually associated with hypoglycemia, is an important cause of illness in neonates that can manifest as:

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#15. Farm animals are born agammaglobinemic hence ingestion of colostrum within 4 hour of parturition is essential to confer

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#16. Which one of the following is NOT an anti-tubercular drug?

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#17. Vagus indigestion in cattle is predominantly characterized by

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#18. Method used to eradicate bovine tuberculosis from an area is

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#19. Common route of Arsenic poisoning in farm animals is

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#20. R2B vaccine is given for protection against

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#21. Clinical diagnosis of hemorrhagic septicemia in endemic area is based on

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#22. Central strategy for prevention and control of Marek’s disease is

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#23. Disease with the signs of emaciation, shedding of wool and presence of soft faeces in sheep are characteristic features of

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#24. One of the following is a surfactant used in treatment of frothy bloat:

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#25. One of the conditions noticed in cattle following recovery from FMD is

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#26. Correlation among different measurements on a character in the life of an animal is called

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#27. Proportion of phenotypic variance caused due to additive gene variance is

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#28. Which of the following is NOT an assumption for Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium?

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#29. In a random mating population, the maximum heterozygosity is expressed when one of the gene frequencies is

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#30. If a genotype is AaBbCcDdEe, then the number of unique gametes possible from the genotype is

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#31. Duplicate dominant epistasis in F2 generation yields a phenotypic ratio of

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#32. Repeatability sets

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#33. The ideal male to female ratio in flock mating of poultry is

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#34. When two or more breeds are used in a particular sequence on crossbred female population it is called

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#35. The reverse of heterosis is:

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#36. The organ of an apparently healthy cattle that sheds Pasteurella multocida serotype B2 during periods of stress is

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#37. Heterosis is caused due to

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#38. Maximum number of traits considered in a selection index programme with better effect is

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#39. Mating of a purebred sire of a desirable breed to non-descript female is called

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#40. Inbreeding coefficient of an individual produced from parent-offspring mating is

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#41. Homozygotes of identical genes by descent are called

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#42. General combining ability calculated in a diallel mating is indicative of

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#43. Traits having low heritability (h2) can be improved best through

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#44. Response to selection depends directly on

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#45. If h2 value of a trait is 0.5, selection differential is 25, and generation interval is 2.5 years, then the response per year will be

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#46. Which of the following is NOT a direct function of testosterone?

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#47. The main constituent of ampullary secretion in the stallion is

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#48. Vesicular glands secretion in boar is especially rich in

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#49. Immotile spermatozoa due to perturbation of genesis of flagellum representing loose coils of spermatozoa is termed as

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#50. Typical ‘rage’ reaction during dismounting of male is the copulatory behavior commonly found in

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#51. The collection period for digestibility trial of large ruminants should be

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#52. What are the primary effects of chaffing roughages for ruminants?

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#53. The digestibility of forage depends upon

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#54. In determining the digestibility by in situ method, the feed materials in bags are placed in the

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#55. In the two-stage technique of in vitro digestibility (Tilley and Terry), the second stage simulates

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#56. Cannibalism in poultry can be triggered by dietary deficiency of

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#57. Who developed the starch equivalent system of feed evaluation?

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#58. Which one of the following does NOT serve as a rich source of phosphorus for farm animals?

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#59. A higher Respiratory Quotient (RQ = 1.0) is found with the metabolism of

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#60. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) cannot be synthesized endogenously by:

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#61. Which of the following is a dual-purpose breed of cattle?

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#62. The recommended rate of feeding colostrum to a newly born calf is

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#63. Crude protein percentage of growing/finishing pig ration is typically

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#64. The hormone responsible for the milk let-down reflex in dairy animals is

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#65. Malabari (Tellicherry) breed of goat originates in which Indian state?

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#66. The removal of wool from the belly of a ram around the penis is known as

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#67. Flushing of ewes prior to breeding can improve lambing rate by

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#68. The fine-wool sheep strain developed at CSWRI by crossing Rambouillet on Chokla and Nali is

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#69. The removal of dung-soiled or dirt-laden wool from a sheep’s hindquarters is called

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#70. The original home tract of Saanen goat breed is

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#71. Which of the following is an Indian milch breed of goat?

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#72. Hybrid Napier is a type of

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#73. Calving interval in dairy animals is mathematically equal to

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#74. The most important economic trait considered while selecting a dairy cow is

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#75. The practice of feeding extra concentrates during the last weeks of pregnancy is termed

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#76. Development of ropiness in milk may be due to infection with

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#77. Artificial insemination technique in cattle was first introduced commercially in India by

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#78. Bifidus factor, which promotes growth of beneficial gut lactobacilli, is most abundant in milk of

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#79. The condition in which fetal bones crepitate within the uterus on rectal examination of a cow is

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#80. The lactoperoxidase (LP) system is related with

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#81. Psychrophilic organisms grow optimally at which temperature range?

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#82. In dairy processing, UHT stands for

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#83. Bacteriophages are biologically classified as

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#84. The world’s first veterinary school was established at Lyon in

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#85. A virus transmitted through the milk of goats infected with tick-borne encephalitis is

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#86. A delayed somatic effect of ionizing radiation exposure is

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#87. The most efficient biological method of reducing organic matter in sewage is

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#88. The radioactive fission isotope which has a half-life of about 30 years is

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#89. The presence of biodegradable organic matter in municipal water indicates

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#90. The existence of recently decomposed or decaying animal matter in water is indicated by elevated

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#91. The TORCH diagnostic test panel is associated with

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#92. Cutaneous larva migrans (creeping eruption) in humans is an epidemiological example of

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#93. Darling’s disease is otherwise known as

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#94. A zoonotic infection transmitted across species via animal organ or tissue transplantation is termed

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#95. A systemic fungal zoonosis frequently associated with bird and bat guano habitats is

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#96. Accurate commercial bull sperm sexing for sorting X- and Y-bearing spermatozoa is performed using

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#97. Which of the following infectious diseases is primarily transmitted venereally in cattle?

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#98. In the standard double-injection prostaglandin synchronization protocol in dairy cows, doses are given

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#99. Which of the following is NOT a method of pregnancy diagnosis in livestock?

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#100. Which of the following reproductive hormones are produced by the placenta in various domestic animal species?

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#101. Which of the following mountain passes is correctly matched with its respective Indian State?

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#102. Sandalwood trees (Santalum album) are most typically found in which forest biome?

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#103. In which of the following mammalian species does the male naturally possess functional mammary glands capable of lactating?

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#104. The electromagnetic waves commonly used in television remote control units are

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#105. Random Access Memory (RAM) in computer architecture is classified as

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#106. In humans, trisomy of chromosome number 21 results in

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#107. Who among the following was appointed as the first Lokpal of India?

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#108. India’s first certified fully organic state is

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#109. Kadaknath chicken breed, known for black flesh and awarded Geographical Indication (GI), is associated with

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#110. India was validated and declared free from active trachoma, which is an infectious disease of the eye caused by

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#111. India’s ‘Mission Shakti’ tested in March 2019 was an operational demonstration of:

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#112. Which of the following trace atmospheric gases is found in the lowest concentration in dry atmospheric air?

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#113. As per the 2011 Census of India, which among the following states registered the highest literacy rate among the options?

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#114. The Project Snow Leopard to conserve high-altitude wildlife launched by MoEFCC covers which states?

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#115. The biological release of which of the following into community ponds and wells aids in mosquito vector control?

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#116. The international Nagoya Protocol is primarily related to

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#117. Which fundamental right was described as the ‘Heart and Soul’ of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?

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#118. Recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2018, Saikhom Mirabai Chanu, is associated with

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#119. RERA is the statutory regulatory authority in India governing

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#120. Who was the Chief Guest of Honor at the Republic Day celebrations of India in 2019?

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