Vetedemy Mock Test 1

Results

QUIZ START

#1. Biological value (BV) of a protein is best defined as:

% of ingested N retained in body

% of absorbed N retained in body

% of digested N excreted in urine

% of food N absorbed from GIT

#2. The primary site of volatile fatty acid (VFA) absorption in ruminants is:

Omasum

Abomasum

Rumen

Small intestine

#3. Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin of animals on exposure to sunlight?

Vitamin A

Vitamin D

Vitamin E

Vitamin K

#4. Deficiency of which mineral causes ‘milk fever’ (hypocalcaemia) in dairy cows?

Phosphorus

Magnesium

Calcium

Potassium

#5. Net Energy for Maintenance (NEm) refers to energy used for:

Growth only

Basal metabolism + voluntary activity

Milk production

Reproduction

#6. Urea can be used as a Non-Protein Nitrogen (NPN) source for:

Poultry

Pigs

Ruminants

Dogs

#7. The term ‘Crude Fibre’ in proximate analysis primarily represents:

Starch + sugar

Cellulose + lignin + hemicellulose residue after acid-alkali treatment

Total carbohydrate

Pectin content

#8. Gossypol toxicity in animals is associated with feeding excess:

Groundnut cake

Cottonseed cake

Soybean meal

Sunflower meal

#9. Which of the following is an example of a fat-soluble vitamin?

Riboflavin

Niacin

Vitamin K

Vitamin C

#10. TDN (Total Digestible Nutrients) is calculated as:

DCP + DCF + DNFE + (2.25 × DEE)

DE + ME + NE

CP + CF + EE + NFE

GE - FE - UE

#11. Hypomagnesaemia (grass tetany) in cattle is due to deficiency of:

Calcium

Phosphorus

Magnesium

Sodium

#12. The anti-nutritional factor ‘trypsin inhibitor’ is found in:

Maize

Raw soybean

Wheat bran

Rice bran

#13. The normal body temperature of cattle (°F) is approximately:

99.5°F

101.5°F

103.5°F

105°F

#14. Hormone responsible for ‘let-down’ of milk in dairy animals is:

Prolactin

Oxytocin

Estrogen

Progesterone

#15. The normal rumen pH in healthy cattle is approximately:

4.5–5.0

5.5–6.0

6.5–7.0

7.5–8.0

#16. Which compartment of ruminant stomach is analogous to the true stomach of monogastric animals?

Rumen

Reticulum

Omasum

Abomasum

#17. The process of ‘Rumination’ involves:

Swallowing of feed

Regurgitation, remastication and reswallowing of ingesta

Fermentation in rumen

Absorption of VFAs

#18. Normal pulse rate (beats/min) in cattle is:

20–30

40–80

90–120

130–150

#19. Erythropoiesis (RBC formation) primarily occurs in:

Spleen

Liver

Red bone marrow

Lymph nodes

#20. The hormone that regulates blood calcium levels by promoting bone resorption is:

Calcitonin

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Insulin

Glucagon

#21. Heritability (h²) of milk yield in cattle is approximately:

0.05–0.10

0.25–0.35

0.60–0.70

0.85–0.95

#22. The breeding method used for ‘fixing’ of desired traits in a population is:

Outbreeding

Crossbreeding

Inbreeding

Grading up

#23. Expected Progeny Difference (EPD) is used to evaluate:

Phenotypic merit of the animal

Genetic transmitting ability of a sire

Environmental effects on production

Breed purity

#24. Heterosis (hybrid vigour) is maximum in traits having:

High heritability

Low heritability

Moderate heritability

Zero heritability

#25. The normal diploid chromosome number in cattle is:

#26. Murrah is a well-known breed of:

Cattle

Buffalo

Sheep

Goat

#27. ‘Grading up’ refers to:

Mating of superior males with superior females

Repeated use of purebred sires on non-descript females to upgrade the stock

Mating of two different breeds

Inbreeding within a closed population

#28. Which of the following is a dual-purpose breed of cattle?

Holstein Friesian

Sahiwal

Hariana

Jersey

#29. Linkage disequilibrium in genetics refers to:

Equal frequency of alleles in population

Non-random association of alleles at two or more loci

Independent assortment of chromosomes

Loss of heterozygosity

#30. The Pashmina fibre is obtained from:

Angora rabbit

Angora goat

Pashmina goat (Changthangi)

Merino sheep

#31. The ideal age for first calving in crossbred dairy cattle is:

18–24 months

24–30 months

30–36 months

36–42 months

#32. The standard lactation period for dairy cattle used for comparison is:

200 days

270 days

305 days

365 days

#33. In poultry, ‘brooding’ refers to:

Egg incubation

Providing warmth to newly hatched chicks

Debeaking of birds

Vaccination schedule

#34. FCR (Feed Conversion Ratio) in broilers is approximately:

1:1

1.8–2.0:1

3.5–4.0:1

5:1

#35. Which system of poultry housing provides maximum biosecurity?

Free range

Semi-intensive

Cage system (battery cage)

Deep litter system

#36. The gestation period of a buffalo is approximately:

280 days

310 days

330 days

365 days

#37. Colostrum should be fed to newborn calves within:

6 hours of birth

12 hours of birth

24 hours of birth

48 hours of birth

#38. In sheep, ‘flushing’ means:

Shearing before breeding

Steaming up before lambing

Improved feeding before mating to increase ovulation rate

Dipping of sheep for ectoparasites

#39. Which is the most productive layer breed of poultry in India?

Aseel

Rhode Island Red

White Leghorn

Plymouth Rock

#40. Stocking density (sq ft/bird) in deep litter broiler housing is approximately:

0.5

1.0

1.5

2.0

#41. Dehorning in calves is best done at the age of:

1 week

2–3 weeks

2 months

6 months

#42. Optimal water temperature for fish culture in warm water aquaculture is:

5–10°C

15–20°C

25–30°C

35–40°C

#43. Penicillin acts by:

Inhibiting DNA gyrase

Inhibiting cell wall synthesis

Disrupting cell membrane

Inhibiting protein synthesis at 30S ribosome

#44. Which anthelmintic is used against both roundworms and tapeworms?

Ivermectin

Piperazine

Fenbendazole

Levamisole

#45. Organophosphate toxicity is treated with:

BAL (Dimercaprol)

Atropine + Pralidoxime (PAM)

EDTA

Sodium thiosulphate

#46. The drug of choice for acepromazine (phenothiazine) group is used as:

Antibiotic

Tranquilizer

Analgesic

Anthelmintic

#47. Which of the following is a broad-spectrum antibiotic?

Penicillin G

Streptomycin

Oxytetracycline

Erythromycin

#48. Aflatoxicosis in poultry is caused by toxin produced by:

Fusarium sp.

Aspergillus flavus

Penicillium sp.

Claviceps purpurea

#49. The antidote for cyanide poisoning is:

Atropine

Pralidoxime

Sodium nitrite + Sodium thiosulphate

EDTA

#50. Which drug is used as a uterine contractile agent (ecbolic) in cattle?

Progesterone

Oxytocin

GnRH

Dexamethasone

#51. Sulphonamides act by inhibiting synthesis of:

Folic acid

DNA

Cell wall peptidoglycan

RNA polymerase

#52. Nitrate/Nitrite toxicity in cattle causes:

Jaundice

Methaemoglobinaemia (chocolate-brown blood)

Haematuria

Nephrosis

#53. Cloudy swelling (parenchymatous degeneration) is characterised by:

Fatty change in liver

Swelling of cells with granular cytoplasm due to mitochondrial swelling

Coagulative necrosis

Dystrophic calcification

#54. Coagulative necrosis is most commonly seen in:

Brain

Liver

Heart (myocardial infarction)

Lymph nodes

#55. The hallmark of acute inflammation is:

Fibrosis

Accumulation of mononuclear cells

Vascular changes + neutrophil infiltration

Giant cell formation

#56. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of:

Haemonchosis

Tuberculosis

Foot and Mouth Disease

Anthrax

#57. Heinz bodies in RBCs are associated with toxicity of:

Lead

Phenothiazine

Copper

Fluoride

#58. Which type of neoplasm is locally invasive but rarely metastasizes?

Carcinoma

Sarcoma

Benign tumour

Lymphoma

#59. Fibrinous pericarditis (‘bread and butter’ appearance) is commonly seen in:

FMD

Traumatic reticulopericarditis in cattle

PPR

Blackquarter

#60. The type of cell predominant in chronic inflammation is:

Neutrophil

Eosinophil

Macrophage/Lymphocyte

Mast cell

#61. Haemonchus contortus, the ‘Barber’s pole worm’, mainly parasitizes the:

Small intestine

Large intestine

Abomasum

Lungs

#62. The intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) is:

Cyclops

Lymnaea snail

Dung beetle

Earthworm

#63. Dourine in horses is caused by:

Trypanosoma equiperdum

Trypanosoma evansi

Babesia equi

Leishmania sp.

#64. Sarcoptic mange is caused by a mite that:

Lives on the surface of skin and feeds on exudate

Burrows into the epidermis

Feeds on blood

Infects hair follicles

#65. Cysticercus bovis is the larval stage of:

Echinococcus granulosus

Taenia saginata

Taenia solium

Moniezia sp.

#66. Theileria parva causes which disease in cattle?

Babesiosis

East Coast Fever

Surra

Anaplasmosis

#67. The drug of choice for treatment of Babesiosis in cattle is:

Imidocarb dipropionate

Diminazene aceturate (Berenil)

Oxytetracycline

Albendazole

#68. Toxoplasma gondii’s definitive host is:

Dog

Cattle

Cat

Pig

#69. Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) is caused by:

Paramyxovirus

Aphthovirus (Picornavirus)

Poxvirus

Herpesvirus

#70. The characteristic sign of ‘Milk Ring Test (MRT)’ positive result indicates:

Mastitis

Brucellosis in dairy herd

Ketosis

Tuberculosis

#71. Blackquarter (Blackleg) in cattle is caused by:

Clostridium chauvoei

Clostridium tetani

Bacillus anthracis

Clostridium perfringens

#72. PPR (Peste des Petits Ruminants) primarily affects:

Cattle and buffalo

Sheep and goats

Pigs

Poultry

#73. Contagious Bovine Pleuro-Pneumonia (CBPP) is caused by:

Mannheimia haemolytica

Pasteurella multocida

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

#74. Johne’s disease (Paratuberculosis) in cattle is caused by:

Mycobacterium bovis

Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

#75. Ranikhet disease (Newcastle Disease) in poultry is caused by:

Influenza virus

Paramyxovirus serotype 1

Reovirus

Herpesvirus

#76. The ‘Rose Bengal Plate Test (RBPT)’ is used for diagnosis of:

Tuberculosis

Brucellosis

Anthrax

FMD

#77. Ketosis in high-yielding dairy cows is characterised by:

Hypercalcaemia

Elevated blood ketone bodies + hypoglycaemia

Polycythaemia

Hyperphosphataemia

#78. Equine Infectious Anaemia (EIA) is caused by:

Pestivirus

Lentivirus (Retroviridae)

Arterivirus

Togavirus

#79. Gumboro disease (IBD) in poultry affects the:

Liver

Bursa of Fabricius

Trachea

Proventriculus

#80. The causative agent of Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD) is:

Herpesvirus

Capripoxvirus

Parapoxvirus

Orthopoxvirus

#81. The oestrus cycle length in cattle is approximately:

14 days

17 days

21 days

28 days

#82. Ovulation in cattle occurs approximately:

At the start of oestrus

During the middle of oestrus

10–12 hours after end of oestrus

24–36 hours before oestrus

#83. Retained placenta in cattle is defined when foetal membranes are not expelled within:

6 hours

12 hours

24 hours

48 hours

#84. Cryoprotectant most commonly used in semen preservation is:

Ethylene glycol

Glycerol

DMSO

Propylene glycol

#85. Normal gestation period of a mare (horse) is approximately:

280 days

310 days

340 days

365 days

#86. Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) is caused by:

Brucella abortus

Taylorella equigenitalis

Campylobacter fetus

Leptospira sp.

#87. Superovulation in cattle for embryo transfer is induced using:

GnRH alone

FSH or PMSG

Progesterone + Oestrogen

Oxytocin

#88. Freemartin condition in cattle is a female calf born co-twin with a male, showing:

Normal fertility

Intersexuality and infertility due to hormonal influence via anastomosed placental vessels

Superior milk production

Enhanced ovulation rate

#89. Rumenotomy is the surgical operation performed on the:

Reticulum

Rumen

Omasum

Abomasum

#90. The most commonly used local anaesthetic in veterinary practice is:

Thiopentone sodium

Lignocaine (Lidocaine)

Ketamine

Xylazine

#91. Castration of male cattle by crushing of spermatic cord without incision is done using:

Emasculator

Burdizzo castrator

Rubber ring (Elastrator)

Scalpel

#92. Teat canal obstruction (acquired teat stenosis) in cows is treated surgically by:

Thelotomy

Mastectomy

Teat amputation

Infusion of antibiotics

#93. Left flank laparotomy in cattle is most commonly performed for:

Caesarean section

Correction of Left Displaced Abomasum (LDA)

Rumenotomy

Ovariectomy

#94. Brucellosis is a classic example of which type of zoonosis?

Anthroponosis

Direct zoonosis (Orthozoonosis)

Cyclozoonosis

Metazoonosis

#95. The basic reproductive number (R₀) of an infection represents:

Number of animals dying per outbreak

Average number of secondary cases produced by one infectious case in a fully susceptible population

Attack rate in a herd

Proportion of exposed animals developing disease

#96. Pasteurization of milk at 72°C for 15 seconds is known as:

Holder pasteurization

High Temperature Short Time (HTST) pasteurization

Ultra High Temperature (UHT) treatment

Sterilization

#97. The OIE (now WOAH) list A diseases are those that are:

Endemic in India

Transmissible, of serious socio-economic or public health importance with potential for rapid international spread

Non-reportable but economically important

Exclusively zoonotic

#98. The fat content of standard whole milk (BIS standard in India) is at least:

2.5%

3.5%

4.5%

5.5%

#99. Ghee is manufactured from milk fat by:

Mechanical separation + pasteurization

Churning butter/cream and heating to remove moisture and SNF

Ultrafiltration

Evaporation under vacuum

#100. Carcass yield percentage in well-fed crossbred cattle is approximately:

35–40%

45–55%

60–65%

70–75%

Finish