OPSC PCS VAS 2013 PAPER 1-veterinary science

Results

QUIZ START

#1. Trigeminal nerve is classified physiologically as:

Mixed nerve

Sensory nerve

Motor nerve

None of the above

#2. There is a distinct abdominal part of the oesophagus in case of:

Sheep

Goat

Horse

#3. The sclera of the eyeball is embryologically derived from:

Ectoderm

Mesoderm

Endoderm

None of the above

#4. Kidneys are anatomically lobulated in:

Horse

Sheep

Dog

Fowl

#5. The tapetum lucidum of the eye is located in the:

Vascular tunic (Choroid)

Nervous tunic

Fibrous tunic

Vitreous body

#6. Epidural anaesthesia in cows is generally administered in between:

1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae

1st and 2nd coccygeal vertebrae

2nd and 3rd lumbar vertebrae

2nd and 3rd coccygeal vertebrae

#7. In dogs, the number of thoracic vertebrae is:

#8. In the tongue, taste buds are prominently present on which type of papillae?

Fungiform papillae

Filiform papillae

Lenticular papillae

Conical papillae

#9. The femoral head articulates within the:

Obturator foramen

Foramen magnum

Glenoid cavity

Acetabular cavity

#10. The largest foramen in the mammalian skeleton is the:

Foramen magnum

Foramen triosseum

Obturator foramen

Infraorbital foramen

#11. Peyer’s patches are characteristic lymphoid aggregates present in the:

Ileum

Stomach

Oesophagus

Uterus

#12. The deltoid tuberosity is a prominent anatomical feature present on the:

Femur

Radius

Fibula

Humerus

#13. The horn core (cornual process) of ruminants is an extension of which bone?

Maxillary bone

Occipital bone

Zygomatic bone

Frontal bone

#14. The organ primarily responsible for maintaining equilibrium and body balance is the:

Cerebrum

Inner ear (vestibular apparatus)

Pineal gland

Kidney

#15. Horny papillae (conical papillae) are characteristically observed in which stomach compartment?

Rumen

Reticulum

Omasum

Abomasum

#16. The sigmoid flexure of the penis is absent in which domestic animal?

Bull

Buck

Ram

Dog

#17. The anterior (cranial) ovarian artery is a direct visceral branch of the:

Uterine artery

Thoracic aorta

Abdominal aorta

Internal iliac artery

#18. The spermatic cord contains all of the following anatomical structures EXCEPT:

Vas deferens

Internal cremaster muscle

Dartos tunic

Spermatic vein and pampiniform plexus

#19. The term ‘Duct of Bellini’ (papillary duct) is associated with which organ?

Kidney

Spleen

Gall bladder

Mullerian duct

#20. The optic nerve (Cranial Nerve II) is purely:

Sensory

Motor

Mixed

Autonomic

#21. Formaldehyde acts as a disinfectant primarily by:

Interaction with amino acids and alkylation of proteins

Oxidation process

Disruption of cell membranes

Coagulation of mineral salts

#22. Which specimen is of primary diagnostic value for post-mortem isolation in bovine Brucellosis abortion?

Aborted fetal abomasal stomach content

Fetal scrotum

Fetal eye

Fetal bone marrow

#23. The McFadyean reaction (polychrome methylene blue stain) is specific for the diagnostic demonstration of:

Brucella abortus

Bacillus anthracis

Babesia bigemina

Trypanosoma evansi

#24. Robertson’s Cooked Meat (RCM) medium is routinely used for the cultivation of:

Brucella organism

Salmonella organism

Proteus organism

Clostridial organisms (anaerobes)

#25. Dorset’s egg medium is specifically used for the primary isolation and growth of:

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Listeria monocytogenes

Salmonella typhimurium

#26. Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR) was first clinically and virologically detected in India in:

Tripura

Madhya Pradesh

Rajasthan

Tamil Nadu

#27. The Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR) morbillivirus has its highest tropism and affinity for:

Lymphoid tissues

Respiratory epithelium

Hepatic parenchymal cells

Renal tubular cells

#28. Which major outer capsid structural proteins of Bluetongue virus (BTV) determine serotype specificity?

VP2 and VP5

VP3 and VP7

NS1 and NS2

VP1 and VP4

#29. The ocular form of Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR) commonly occurs concurrently with the:

Vulvovaginal form

Nervous form

Enteric form

Respiratory form

#30. Which viral respiratory infection in cattle clinically resembles Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR)?

Leptospira

Listeria

Brucella

Parainfluenza-3

#31. Buffalopox virus is a zoonotic orthopoxvirus that can be readily transmitted to:

Deer

Pig

Tiger

Children and dairy animal handlers

#32. Crystal violet vaccine was historically developed and used to protect pigs against:

Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis

Rinderpest

Foot and Mouth Disease

Classical Swine Fever (Hog Cholera)

#33. Equine influenza outbreaks in Indian horses are generally caused by which viral subtype?

H7N7 subtype

H3N8 subtype

Both H3 and N8 subtypes

H1N1 subtype

#34. Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) virus is a lentivirus that shares biological and morphological similarities with:

Tuberculosis

Strongylosis

Azoturia

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (AIDS)

#35. In healthy carrier cattle, the Hemorrhagic Septicemia (HS) organism Pasteurella multocida resides in the:

Tonsils

Nasopharynx

Larynx

All of the above upper respiratory sites

#36. Langhans giant cells are characteristic microscopic histopathological features observed in:

Brucellosis

Leptospirosis

Tuberculosis

Listeriosis

#37. The Stormont test is a specialized delayed hypersensitivity skin test used to diagnose:

Anthrax

Hemorrhagic Septicemia

Brucellosis

Tuberculosis in cattle

#38. The heat-labile (LT) enterotoxin of Escherichia coli induces watery diarrhea by activating:

Glutamate cyclase

Adenylate cyclase

Phospholipase C

Sorbitol dehydrogenase

#39. The therapeutic agent of choice indicated for the treatment of ‘Wooden Tongue’ (Actinobacillosis) in cattle is:

Sodium iodide intravenously

Ammonium chloride

Potassium nitrate

Calcium lactate

#40. Which bacterial cellular structure contains the primary specific receptor sites for bacteriophage attachment?

Cell wall

Capsule

Cytoplasmic membrane

Endospore

#41. The ecological symbiotic term ‘Commensalism’ denotes:

An association between two species where one benefits without metabolically harming the other

An association where both species harm each other

Obligate parasitic association

Mutual lethal interaction

#42. The protozoan parasite Leishmania develops and multiplies within its invertebrate vector:

Mosquito

Tabanus fly

Culicoides midge

Sandfly (Phlebotomus)

#43. The lung fluke Paragonimus westermani primarily affects:

Carnivores such as Cats and Dogs

Buffalo

Deer

Pig

#44. Spasmodic verminous colic and thromboembolic arterial colic in horses is caused by larvae of:

Trichuris vulpis

Oxyuris equi

Strongylus vulgaris

Parascaris equorum

#45. The common intermediate host in the life cycle of the double-pored dog tapeworm Dipylidium caninum is the:

Flea (Ctenocephalides canis/felis)

Fly

Mite

Tick

#46. The cat flea Ctenocephalides felis serves as the obligate intermediate host for:

Dirofilaria immitis

Taenia multiceps

Dipylidium caninum

Spirometra sp.

#47. Koch’s blue bodies (macroschizonts) are pathognomonic diagnostic stages found in lymphoid tissues in:

Toxoplasmosis

Eimeriosis

Babesiosis

Theileriosis (Theileria annulata)

#48. The large lungworm of cattle causing parasitic bronchitis (husk) is:

Dioctophyma renale

Trichostrongylus axei

Dictyocaulus viviparus

Syngamus trachea

#49. Infestation with the broad fish tapeworm Diphyllobothrium latum can lead to host deficiency of:

Vitamin C

Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamin)

Vitamin K

Vitamin E

#50. Fistulous withers and poll evil in horses are chronic inflammatory lesions associated with:

Stephanofilaria

Parafilaria

Dirofilaria

Onchocerca cervicalis and Brucella

#51. The pancreatic fluke affecting sheep, goats, and cattle is known as:

Eurytrema pancreaticum

Eurytrema coelomaticum

Eurytrema ovis

All of the above Eurytrema species

#52. Which pathogenic nematode of ruminants is popularly termed the ‘Barber’s pole worm’?

Bunostomum phlebotomum

Oesophagostomum radiatum

Trichostrongylus axei

Haemonchus contortus / Haemonchus placei

#53. Eperythrozoonosis (Mycoplasma suis / Mycoplasma wenyoni) can be effectively treated with:

Amoxicillin

Erythromycin

Enrofloxacin

Oxytetracycline

#54. Prominent swelling of superficial lymph nodes, especially precrural and prescapular nodes, is characteristic of:

Babesiosis

Trypanosomiasis

Theileriosis (Bovine Tropical Theileriosis)

Anaplasmosis

#55. The parasitic disease term ‘Lambliasis’ denotes infection caused by:

Babesia

Giardia lamblia

Amoeba

Cryptosporidium

#56. The common anoplocephalid tapeworms infecting horses include:

Anoplocephala magna

Anoplocephala perfoliata

Paranoplocephala mamillana

All of the above

#57. ‘Milk spot’ lesions (fibrous scars) in the liver capsule of pigs are caused by migrating larvae of:

Ascaris suum

Hyostrongylus rubidus

Ascarops strongylina

Physocephalus sexalatus

#58. Which of the following trematodes resides within the pancreatic duct of ruminants?

Dicrocoelium dendriticum

Fascioloides magna

Cotylophoron cotylophoron

Eurytrema coelomaticum

#59. ‘Bleeding spots’ (verminous hemorrhagic dermatitis) on the skin of cattle is caused by:

Onchocerca sp.

Parafilaria bovicola

Stephanofilaria assamensis

Capillaria sp.

#60. The classical pathological lesion ‘Pipe stem liver’ (calcified bile ducts) is observed in chronic:

Amphistomiasis

Dicrocoeliasis

Schistosomiasis

Fascioliasis (Fasciola hepatica/gigantica)

#61. Post-mortem gross lesions in avian Infectious Coryza (Avibacterium paragallinarum) are characterized by:

Swollen infraorbital sinuses and facial edema with catarrhal exudate

Swollen kidney with exudates

Swollen heart with exudates

Swollen spleen with exudates

#62. ‘Mushy chick disease’ (Yolk sac infection / Omphalitis) in newly hatched poultry chicks is primarily caused by:

Escherichia coli

Pasteurella multocida

Salmonella pullorum

Infectious bronchitis virus

#63. In Inclusion Body Hepatitis (IBH) of poultry caused by fowl adenovirus, the diagnostic inclusion bodies are:

Intracytoplasmic basophilic

Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic

Intranuclear eosinophilic / basophilic in hepatocytes

Extranuclear crystalloid

#64. Which anatomical tissue/sample is ideal for the laboratory isolation of Egg Drop Syndrome (EDS-76) adenovirus?

Oviduct and reproductive tract

Pharynx

Feces

All of the above clinical samples

#65. Ascites pericardium syndrome (Hydropericardium syndrome) in broilers is popularly known in the field as:

Leechi disease

Angara disease

Both Leechi disease and Angara disease

Gumboro disease

#66. Which musculoskeletal defect and clinical sign is most prominent in Runting and Stunting Syndrome (RSS) of broilers?

Rickets and abnormal osteoid deposition

Osteomalacia

Osteopenia

Osteodystrophy

#67. ‘Ginger head syndrome’ in poultry chicks with pale depigmented feathers can develop due to nutritional deficiency of:

Manganese

Magnesium

Copper

Molybdenum

#68. Humoral immunity mediated by antibodies and circulating immunoglobulins is directly related to:

Immediate hypersensitivity and anaphylaxis

Autoimmune reactions

Septicemia

Both anaphylaxis and autoimmune reactions

#69. Rouleaux formation of red blood cells is normally absent in:

Cow and other ruminants

Dog

Horse

Pig

#70. True hemoglobinuria in cattle and sheep is a prominent clinical feature of:

Cystitis

Nephritis

Urolithiasis

Leptospirosis / Babesiosis

#71. Which parasitic nematode may be identified in the urinary sediment of infected dogs?

Capillaria plica (Pearsonema plica)

Stephanofilaria duodeni

Parafilaria bovicola

Oxyuris equi

#72. Which of the following chemical compounds is widely used as a clinical blood anticoagulant?

Sodium hydroxide

Potassium hydroxide

Sodium citrate

Sodium tartrate

#73. Functional T-lymphocytes in cellular immunology are generally grouped into how many major effector subsets?

One type

Two types

Three major types (Helper, Cytotoxic, Regulatory)

Four types

#74. The most biologically reactive and cellular-damaging oxygen-derived free radical is the:

Superoxide anion

Hydrogen peroxide

Hydroxyl radical (OH•)

Singlet oxygen

#75. In which mammalian breed/species is uric acid naturally excreted in large amounts as the end-product of purine metabolism?

Domestic pig

Horse

Dalmatian dog

Doberman dog

#76. The most common histologic and macroscopic type of intravascular thrombus is the:

Laminated thrombus

Red (stasis) thrombus

White (pale) thrombus

Mixed thrombus

#77. Which gas is primarily responsible for forming fatal air/gas emboli in decompression sickness (caisson disease)?

Hydrogen

Carbon monoxide

Oxygen

Nitrogen

#78. When cytokines act on distant target cells through the bloodstream, this systemic biological effect is known as:

Autocrine effect

Paracrine effect

Juxtacrine effect

Endocrine effect

#79. Which immune cells are considered the primary large granular lymphocytes mediating non-MHC-restricted natural killing?

Natural Killer (NK) lymphocytes

Plasma cells

Macrophages

Giant cells

#80. Which chemical agent acts as a classic lipotropic factor preventing fatty liver syndrome?

Choline

Biotin

Cystine

Arginine

#81. Which pharmacological agent is clinically indicated to stimulate appetite in anorectic animals?

Diazepam

Prednisolone

Cyproheptadine

All of the above

#82. Which of the following serves as the major source and producing cells of inflammatory cytokines?

Blood plasma

Structural peptides

Neutrophils

Activated macrophages, T cells, and Mast cells

#83. The cellular uptake of extracellular fluid droplets by endocytosis (cell drinking) is known as:

Vesicular transport (Pinocytosis)

Convective transport

Pore transport

Facilitated diffusion

#84. Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) is strictly contraindicated and highly toxic in which domestic animal?

Dog

Cattle

Horse

Cat

#85. Which drug is clinically indicated in the medical management of gout and hyperuricemia?

Allopurinol

Colchicine

Aspirin

All of the above agents

#86. The non-protein amino acid Taurine is present in high concentrations in:

Posterior pituitary

Corpus callosum

Thalamus

All of the above central nervous system tissues

#87. Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants in veterinary medicine belong to which pharmacological group?

Mephenesin group

Benzodiazepine group

GABA derivatives

All of the above groups

#88. Which of the following drugs acts as an H1 receptor antihistamine?

Nizatidine

Mepyramine

Terfenadine

Both Mepyramine and Terfenadine

#89. Which drug is pharmacologically classified as a gastric proton pump inhibitor (H+/K+ ATPase inhibitor)?

Nizatidine

Omeprazole

Gefarnate

Cimetidine

#90. What is a major clinical advantage of Thiopentone sodium when used as an intravenous general anesthetic?

Induces rapid hypnosis and smooth surgical anesthesia without excitation

Prolonged analgesic action for several days

Complete lack of respiratory depression

Can be stored indefinitely at room temperature once mixed

#91. In the preparation of Lugol’s iodine solution, Potassium Iodide (KI) is added primarily to:

Act as a chemical preservative

Act as a reducing agent

Increase the aqueous solubility of elemental iodine

Increase chemical potency

#92. Oral Clindamycin therapy should be avoided in combination with which compound due to impaired GI absorption?

Lactose

Kaolin-pectin suspensions

Laxatives

Narcotics

#93. Which ultrashort-acting barbiturate or sedative is excreted unchanged without extensive hepatic metabolism?

Barbital (excreted predominantly unchanged by kidneys)

Phenobarbital

Pentobarbital

Secobarbital

#94. The specific cholinesterase-reactivating oxime antidote used in organophosphorus insecticide poisoning is:

Vitamin K1

Nalorphine

Pralidoxime (2-PAM)

Edrophonium

#95. Which of the following pharmacological agents is classified as an osmotic diuretic?

Mannitol

Isosorbide

Urea

All of the above osmotic agents

#96. Which beta-2 adrenergic agonist is clinically utilized as a tocolytic uterine relaxant to arrest contractions?

Terbutaline

Ergometrine

Prostaglandin F2 alpha

Quinine

#97. Testosterone therapy in small animals may be indicated in which clinical condition?

Estrogen-dependent mammary tumors

Alopecia of endocrine origin

Pseudopregnancy suppression

All of the above indications

#98. Tetracycline antibiotics are chemically incompatible and form insoluble non-absorbable chelates with:

Calcium ions

Magnesium ions

Both Calcium and Magnesium polyvalent cations

None of these minerals

#99. Which anthelmintic is therapeutically effective against juvenile and adult paramphistomes in ruminants?

Tetrachloroethane

Niclosamide

Bithionol

All of the above flukicides

#100. Acyclovir is a synthetic guanosine analogue antiviral drug clinically active against:

Picornaviruses

Herpesviruses

Poxviruses

Parvoviruses

#101. A dairy cow sitting on its sternum with its head resting recumbent on its flank is the classic posture of:

Nervous form of ketosis

Post-parturient paresis (Milk fever)

Downer cow syndrome

Fatty cow syndrome

#102. ‘Swayback’ (Enzootic ataxia) in newborn lambs is a congenital neurodegenerative disorder caused by maternal deficiency of:

Iron (Fe)

Zinc (Zn)

Cobalt (Co)

Copper (Cu)

#103. The pathognomonic ‘Goose-stepping’ locomotor gait in growing pigs is caused by dietary deficiency of:

Nicotinic acid (Niacin)

Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

Pantothenic acid (Vitamin B5)

Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)

#104. Intravenous Ringer’s Lactate solution should be used with extreme caution or avoided in animals suffering from:

Severe skin burns

Dehydration

Peritonitis

Severe hepatic failure and lactic acidosis

#105. The clinical diagnostic term ‘Creatorrhoea’ denotes the abnormal presence in feces of excessive undigested:

Lipids and neutral fats

Muscle and meat fibers

Starch granules

Plant fiber

#106. ‘Black tongue’ disease in dogs (canine pellagra) is a severe mucosal deficiency disorder caused by lack of:

Vitamin A

Vitamin C

Vitamin B12

Niacin (Nicotinic acid)

#107. Parasitic gastritis (abomasitis) and ulcers in domestic ruminants and pigs can be produced by:

Hyostrongylus rubidus / Ostertagia

Moniezia benedeni

Trichuris ovis

Oxyuris equi

#108. In oral rehydration therapy (GRS / ORS), glucose is added primarily to facilitate and enhance the intestinal absorption of:

Additional glucose molecules

Sodium ions (Na+) via SGLT-1 co-transport

Potassium ions (K+)

Bicarbonate anions

#109. Which domestic animal species characteristically remains standing still and avoids recumbency during severe acute peritonitis?

Cattle

Dog

Pig

Horse

#110. In dogs and cats, acute necrotizing pancreatitis typically leads to marked systemic elevation in serum levels of:

Phosphorus

Calcium

Magnesium

Selenium

#111. In ruminants, low-threshold tension receptors that regulate rumino-reticular motility cycles are predominantly located in the:

Reticulum

Omasum

Abomasum

Rumen pillar and groove walls

#112. Glasser’s disease (polyserositis and polyarthritis caused by Glaesserella parasuis) is a specific infectious disease of:

Horses

Cows

Goats

Pigs

#113. Spirocerca lupi (esophageal worm) that produces granulomas and neoplastic sarcomas in the esophagus is a parasite of:

Pigs

Horses

Dogs and other canids

Cats

#114. The specific gravity of urine is significantly increased (hypersthenuria) in which clinical condition?

Chronic interstitial nephritis

Diabetes insipidus

Renal amyloidosis

Extensive acute burns and severe dehydration

#115. Which dietary vitamin acts as a reducing agent to maintain iron in the ferrous (Fe2+) state, enhancing its intestinal absorption?

Vitamin B1

Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)

Folic acid

Nicotinic acid

#116. Idiopathic inherited epilepsy with recurrent seizures is most commonly reported in which breed of cattle?

Brown Swiss

Hereford

Holstein Friesian

Jersey

#117. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure in domestic animals may become significantly elevated in:

Hypovitaminosis A

Congenital hydrocephalus

Acute bacterial meningitis

All of the above pathological conditions

#118. Which protozoan parasite is recognized as causing cutaneous dermatitis and skin lesions in cattle?

Babesia

Besnoitia / Theileria / Trichomonas

Coccidia

Giardia

#119. Allergic milk urticaria in dairy cattle may occur as an auto-allergic response triggered by:

Insect bee venom

Heavy gastrointestinal worm infestation

Severe acute ruminal impaction

Prolonged delayed milking and intramammary milk retention

#120. ‘Spectacle eye’ lesion (alopecia and scaling around eyes) is classically observed in canine:

Sarcoptic scabies

Ringworm dermatophytosis

Demodectic mange (Demodicosis)

Flea bite dermatitis

#121. Secondary (hepatogenous) photosensitization in ruminants grazing toxic plants occurs due to systemic accumulation of:

Xanthine

Phylloxanthine

Chromatin

Phylloerythrin

#122. Deficiency of which trace mineral impairs propionate gluconeogenesis and precipitates secondary bovine ketosis?

Copper

Iodine

Cobalt (constituent of Vitamin B12)

Manganese

#123. Parturient paresis (Milk fever) predominantly occurs with highest incidence in which high-yielding dairy breed?

Non-descript zebu cow

Jersey cow

Holstein Friesian cow

Tharparkar cow

#124. Clinical diabetes mellitus in dogs is almost exclusively insulin-dependent (Type 1) and is treated definitively with:

Glipizide

Glyburide

Chlorpropamide

Exogenous Insulin therapy

#125. ‘Gall sickness’ was the historical synonym given to which tick-borne hemoparasitic bovine disease?

Babesiosis

Theileriosis

Trypanosomiasis

Anaplasmosis (Anaplasma marginale)

#126. The inner core of the Bluetongue virus (BTV) virion is composed of which structural proteins?

VP3

VP7

VP1 and VP4

All of the above core proteins

#127. From a clinical and surgical management perspective, an animal bite wound suspected of transmitting Rabies:

Should not be sutured primarily to avoid driving virus deeper into tissues

Should be tightly sutured immediately

Should be sutured after 24 hours without cleaning

Should be sutured under tension after 48 hours

#128. Dry cow antimicrobial intramammary therapy prevents subsequent clinical mastitis during the following lactation by:

Decreasing and curing existing subclinical udder infections

Preventing new intramammary infections during the dry period

Increasing udder epithelial permeability

Both curing existing infections and preventing new dry-period infections

#129. The clinical protocol known as ‘Blitz therapy’ (whole-herd antimicrobial treatment) is specifically indicated for eradicating:

Peracute coliform mastitis

Acute gangrenous mastitis

Clinical mastitis in heifers

Subclinical mastitis caused by Streptococcus agalactiae

#130. The Coggins test (agar gel immunodiffusion test) is the international statutory serological test for:

Equine viral arteritis

Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)

African horse sickness

Equine influenza

#131. Enzootic Bovine Leukosis (Bovine leukemia) is caused by an oncogenic virus belonging to:

Rotaviridae

Reoviridae

Retroviridae (Deltaretrovirus / Oncovirus)

Rhabdoviridae

#132. Which species serves as the primary natural amplifier host for Vesicular Stomatitis virus?

Desi domestic pig

Feral pig

Ghungroo pig

Landrace pig

#133. Bluetongue disease in sheep and cattle is biologically transmitted by hematophagous insect vectors of the genus:

Rhipicephalus ticks

Tabanus flies

Ctenocephalides fleas

Culicoides biting midges

#134. The hematological blood picture of horses with acute Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA) characteristically exhibits:

Severe leukopenia with lymphopenia and thrombocytopenia

Punctate basophilia

Polycythemia

Hemosiderosis

#135. In biosecurity management, horses arriving from an area with Equine Influenza should be isolated for at least:

31 days

41 days

15 days

21 days

#136. Marked enlargement and congestion of the spleen (splenomegaly) in poultry necropsy is a prominent finding in:

Chronic Respiratory Disease (CRD)

Fowl Typhoid (Salmonella Gallinarum)

Fowl Cholera

Ornithosis

#137. In chronic localized Fowl Cholera (Pasteurella multocida) of chickens, the infection characteristically involves the:

Wattles and comb

Hock joints and tendon sheaths

Eyes and sinuses

All of the above anatomical structures

#138. Which avian species frequently serves as an asymptomatic reservoir and persistent carrier of Salmonella infections?

Domestic ducks

Geese

Swans

Pigeons and wild waterfowl

#139. ‘Keel disease’ in young ducklings is caused by infection with:

Pasteurella multocida

Escherichia coli

Salmonella enterica serovar Enteritidis

Mycoplasma gallisepticum

#140. A distinctive fibrinous pseudo-membrane (‘plastic membrane’) over the liver and heart surfaces is observed in:

Infectious Bronchitis (IB)

Infectious Bursal Disease (IBD)

Chronic Respiratory Disease (CRD / Colibacillosis)

Inclusion Body Hepatitis (IBH)

#141. The richest and most accessible clinical source of adult multipotent mesenchymal stem cells is:

Bone marrow aspirate and adipose tissue

Placental umbilical cord blood

Superficial skin tissue

Synovial fluid

#142. ‘Lampas’ in horses is a physiological or inflammatory congestion and swelling of the mucous membrane of the:

Soft palate

Hard palate immediately behind the incisor teeth

Tongue dorsum

Parotid salivary gland

#143. The therapeutic cytocidal effect of radiotherapy in veterinary oncology is exerted maximally on:

Normal resting mitotic cells

Rapidly dividing malignant cancer cells with high mitotic index

Cells arrested in interphase stage

Mature neural tissue

#144. ‘Canker’ in horses is a chronic, hypertrophic, vegetating moist pododermatitis primarily affecting the:

Moist frog and sole of the hoof

Deep digital flexor tendon

Ergot of the fetlock

Periople of the coronary band

#145. A ‘Ranula’ is clinically defined as an acquired retention cyst or mucocele of the:

Parotid salivary duct

Mandibular salivary gland

Sublingual salivary gland or its duct

Zygomatic salivary gland

#146. According to the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, which cells in the body are the most radiosensitive?

Stem cells of the hematopoietic and lymphoid systems

Mature nerve and muscle cells

Mature osteocytes and chondrocytes

Dermal fibroblasts

#147. Ketamine hydrochloride is pharmacologically classified as a/an:

Inhalant anesthetic

Barbiturate general anesthetic

Dissociative anesthetic agent

Ester local anesthetic

#148. Bog spavin (chronic distension of the tibiotarsal joint capsule) is most frequently observed in horses with:

Straight hock conformation

Sickle hock conformation

Cow hock conformation

Any of the above faulty tarsal conformations

#149. Which of the following suture materials is classified as a synthetic non-absorbable suture?

Polyamide (Nylon) and Polypropylene (Prolene)

Polyglycolic acid (Dexon)

Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)

Polydioxanone (PDS)

#150. The specialized ophthalmological clinical examination technique known as ‘Gonioscopy’ is used to visualize the:

Bulbar conjunctiva

Iridocorneal (filtration) angle of the anterior chamber

Posterior surface of the lens

Corneal ulcer margin

#151. The surgical technique for the definitive radical repair and reconstruction of a hernia is termed:

Herniorrhaphy

Hernioplasty

Kelotomy

Herniotomy

#152. Triflupromazine hydrochloride is classified pharmacologically as a phenothiazine:

Tranquillizer (Neuroleptic)

Sedative hypnotic

Opioid narcotic

Dissociative agent

#153. A deep traumatic wound caused by the penetration of a sharp-pointed object such as a needle or nail is classified as a:

Incised wound

Punctured wound

Lacerated wound

Contused wound

#154. Which of the following compounds is traditionally utilized as a basal narcotic in large animal anesthesia?

Ketamine

Xylazine

Chloral hydrate

Diethyl ether

#155. In diagnostic radiography, stationary or moving anti-scatter grids are positioned:

Directly below the cassette

Between the patient and the radiographic cassette

Inside the intensifying screen

Behind the lead backing

#156. A benign, localized, firm fibroepithelial tumor of the gingiva surrounding the teeth is termed an:

Gnathitis

Odontoma

Epulis

Lampas

#157. An open compound bone fracture is clinically considered to be established as infected if exposed to the exterior for at least:

One hour

Six hours (Golden period exceeded)

Twelve hours

Twenty-four hours

#158. The radical surgical treatment of choice for a chronic, thick-walled, non-resolving bursitis (hygroma) of the bovine carpus is:

Linear firing

Complete surgical extirpation (en bloc excision)

Repeated needle aspiration

Incision and passive drainage

#159. Complete motor paralysis of the radial nerve in the thoracic limb results in loss of carpal extension and is termed:

Shoe boil

Capped elbow

Dropped elbow

Shoulder sweeny

#160. Surgical absorbable catgut suture material is manufactured from the submucosal fibrous layer of the small intestine of:

Sheep

Rabbit

Cattle

Horse

#161. Bacteriological grading of raw herd milk at dairy collection centers can be performed rapidly using:

Dye reduction tests (MBRT / Resazurin)

Disc assay method

Phosphatase test

Turbidity test

#162. The specific gravity of raw whole milk is physiologically influenced by the concentration of:

Fat content

Lactose content

Casein and whey proteins

All of the above milk solids

#163. Common chemical adulterants added to synthetic or diluted milk to artificially elevate specific gravity and lactometer readings include:

Urea

Ammonium sulphate

Both Urea and Ammonium sulphate

Ascorbic acid

#164. An abnormal blue discoloration defect in stored liquid milk is caused by the bacterial growth of:

Pseudomonas syncyanea

Micrococcus luteus

Mycobacterium bovis

Escherichia coli

#165. Echinococcosis (Hydatid cyst disease) is an epidemiological example of which class of zoonoses requiring two vertebrate hosts?

Cyclozoonosis

Direct zoonosis

Metazoonosis

Saprozoonosis

#166. Which of the following major zoonotic bacterial diseases is transmitted to humans through the ingestion of unpasteurized raw cow’s milk?

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

Leprosy

Toxoplasmosis

Brucellosis (Undulant fever)

#167. The rabies lyssavirus is excreted in high titers and primarily transmitted via the bite containing infected:

Urine

Saliva

Blood

Milk

#168. Chronic Brucellosis in humans (Malta fever) can cause clinical complications involving the:

Cardiovascular system (Endocarditis)

Musculoskeletal system (Sacroiliitis and arthritis)

Urogenital system (Orchitis/Epididymitis)

All of the above organ systems

#169. Standard regulatory pasteurization of liquid milk reliably inactivates:

All bacterial endospores

All known infectious prions

All vegetative pathogenic bacteria and most enveloped viruses

None of the above pathogens

#170. Inactivation and destruction of pathogenic viruses in specialized food products can be achieved by:

Ultraviolet irradiation

Ionizing radiation (gamma rays / electron beam)

Both Ultraviolet and Ionizing radiation

Simple refrigeration

#171. Natural virulent ‘Street Rabies Virus’ characteristically produces diagnostic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies known as:

Negri bodies in neurons

Guarnieri bodies

Bollinger bodies

Cowdry type A bodies

#172. The genome of the Rabies lyssavirus is structurally composed of:

Single-stranded negative-sense RNA

Double-stranded DNA

Segmented double-stranded RNA

Circular single-stranded DNA

#173. The designated FAO/WHO Collaborating Reference Centre for Brucellosis in India is located at:

Berlin

Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI), Izatnagar

Pasteur Institute

Haffkine Institute

#174. Which domestic species serves as the primary amplifying host in the transmission cycle of Japanese Encephalitis virus?

Domestic pigs

Dogs

Monkeys

Horses

#175. The natural bacteriostatic and germicidal property of raw, freshly drawn bovine milk is mediated by:

Lactoperoxidase system, lysozyme, and lactoferrin

Specific maternal immunoglobulins

Active serum complement proteins

All of the above antimicrobial factors

#176. ‘Stormy fermentation’ of milk (violent curd disruption and gas production) is a diagnostic reaction produced by:

Streptococcus faecalis

Clostridium perfringens (Clostridium welchii)

Escherichia coli

Shigella dysenteriae

#177. Dental fluorosis (mottling and pitting of enamel) in livestock and humans occurs due to chronic dietary excess of:

Chloride

Iodide

Fluoride in drinking water

Bromide

#178. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) maximum permissible limit for arsenic in potable drinking water is:

0.05 mg/L (or 0.01 mg/L)

0.15 mg/L

0.30 mg/L

0.45 mg/L

#179. The formal historical term ‘Public Health’ originally emerged and gained widespread institutional use during the decade of:

1810s

1820s

1840s

1830s

#180. Which of the following vaccines is considered the most critical, mandatory vaccination in goats in India today?

Pox vaccine

Enterotoxemia vaccine

Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR) vaccine

Contagious ecthyma (Orf) vaccine

#181. During embryonic development, the uterus, cervix, and cranial vagina differentiate from the:

Wolffian (mesonephric) ducts

Mullerian (paramesonephric) ducts

Urogenital sinus

Pronephric tubules

#182. The transient corpus luteum formed during the non-pregnant estrous cycle in the absence of conception is termed:

Corpus luteum spurium (spurious CL)

Corpus albicans

Cumulus oophorus

Corpus luteum verum

#183. In the stallion, during natural copulation, the erect penis engages the cervix and semen is deposited directly into the:

Vaginal fornix

Cervical canal

Uterine body and horns

Vestibule

#184. The cervical mucosal secretions in cyclic and pregnant cattle contain significant concentrations of:

IgA and IgG immunoglobulins

IgM only

IgE only

No antibodies

#185. The placenta of the domestic cow is classified morphologically and histologically as:

Diffuse epitheliochorial

Cotyledonary syndesmochorial (epitheliochorial)

Zonary endotheliochorial

Discoid hemochorial

#186. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) is synthesized and pulsatilely secreted from the:

Hypothalamus (Arcuate and preoptic nuclei)

Adenohypophysis

Neurohypophysis

Placenta

#187. Mammalian spermatozoa and seminal plasma are uniquely rich in which cation essential for motility regulation?

Potassium (K+)

Sodium

Lithium

Iron

#188. In bovine Brucellosis caused by Brucella abortus, infectious abortion characteristically occurs during which stage of gestation?

1 to 2 months

2 to 3 months

3 to 4 months

6 to 9 months of gestation (last trimester)

#189. In domestic farm animals, physiological fertilization of the ovum by a spermatozoon normally takes place in the:

Endometrial glandular lumen

Uterotubal junction

Uterine body

Ampullary-isthmic junction of the oviduct

#190. Freemartinism (development of a sterile intersex heifer co-twin to a bull calf) occurs exclusively in:

Homozygous identical twins

Heterozygous (dizygotic) heterosexual twins sharing placental anastomoses

Monovular triplets

All types of twins equally

#191. The reproductive phenomenon known as ‘Summer Sterility’ (seasonal anestrus and impaired semen quality) is most marked in:

Buffaloes and Rams

Pigs

Horses

Cattle

#192. Cystic ovarian degeneration (follicular cysts) in high-producing dairy cows develops primarily due to failure of the:

Preovulatory LH surge release from the anterior pituitary

Continuous FSH release

Placental lactogen secretion

Progesterone decline

#193. The most common and economically significant pathological complication encountered during or immediately following bovine parturition is:

Pyometra

Retention of fetal membranes (RFM)

Acute metritis

Dystocia

#194. Which of the following domestic animals is classified reproductive-wise as continuously polyestrous?

Sow and Cow

Bitch (monoestrous)

Queen cat (seasonally polyestrous)

Ewe (seasonally polyestrous)

#195. In dairy cattle, the nymphomaniac behavior pattern characterized by frequent irregular estrus and bulling is associated with:

Follicular ovarian cysts

Luteal cysts

Parovarian cysts

Corpus luteum verum

#196. Which maternal hormone is essential for softening the pelvic connective tissue and inducing full dilation of the cervix during parturition?

Oxytocin

Luteinizing hormone

Follicle stimulating hormone

Relaxin

#197. The longest functional stage of the bovine estrous cycle dominated by progesterone secretion is:

Proestrus

Estrus

Metestrus

Diestrus

#198. The normal diploid somatic chromosome number (2n) in domestic cattle is:

#199. Which of the following is recognized as a specific morphological sperm tail defect in farm animal semen?

Knobbed acrosome defect

Dag defect (coiled folded tail)

Diadem defect

All of the above sperm abnormalities

#200. The physiological process of sperm capacitation (destabilization of acrosomal membrane) takes place within the:

Vaginal lumen

Cervical canal

Female reproductive tract (uterus and oviduct)

Epididymal duct

Finish