Veterinary Parasitology State VO PYQs

 

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#1. The intermediate host of Paraphistomum cervi is

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#2. Egg of Demodex canis are

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#3. Nasal granuloma is caused by

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#4. Schistosoma indicum is present in the

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#5. In equine, endarteritis is caused by the larvae of

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#6. The Ascaridia galli causes

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#7. A cestode which causes nodules in the small intestine of sheep is known as

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#8. Venereal transmission leading to abortion occurs in which of the following protozoan infections?

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#9. Antitrematodal drug, that acts against both immature and mature flukes, is

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#10. Anaplasma phagocytophilum in dogs is transmitted by which of the following ticks?

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#11. Which of the following diseases of cattle is categorized as a venereal disease?

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#12. Babesiosis produces

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#13. Dirofilaria immitis is transmitted by

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#14. East coast fever is caused by

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#15. A transport host in which no development of the parasite occurs is known as

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#16. Tick paralysis is associated with

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#17. A parasite having narrow host range is known as

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#18. The follicular mite affecting cattle is

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#19. Cypermethrin belongs to the following group of insecticides

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#20. A buffalo-calf passes mud-colored evil smelling faeces indicating

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#21. Worm nest in cattle is caused by

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#22. Infective stage in schistosomiasis is

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#23. Mal-de-coitus is caused by the following protozoa

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#24. Following are the species of Babesia in cattle except

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#25. Common molluscicide is

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#26. Interproglottid glands present as a row of rosette-like in the posterior part of each proglottid is seen in

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#27. Koch’s blue bodies are

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#28. Red water disease is synonym for

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#29. Amastigote state is present in

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#30. The laboratory reagent used for sporulation of Eimeria species is

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#31. Maltese cross is seen in

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#32. Parasite which causes production of abnormal eggs in poultry is

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#33. Neurocysticercosis is due to

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#34. During necropsy, hepatic coccidiosis is easily diagnosed by the examination of

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#35. Slime balls expelled by snails contain what larval stage of Dicrocoelium dendriticum

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#36. Which of the following parasite is transmitted by swallowing/ ingestion of intermediate host/vector

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#37. Which of the following statement is incorrect in helminthic diagnosis?

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#38. Most suitable type of soil for development of Ancylostoma Caninum larvae is

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#39. The distinctive morphological features of Psoroptes mites are

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#40. Amprolium being used for prevention and treatment of coccidiosis in poultry and cattle, acts via

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#41. The principal vector responsible for maintaining and spreading Bartonella henselae among cats is

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#42. Triclabendazole is a drug of choice for

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#43. The larvae of Oestrus ovis are commonly referred to as

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#44. Taenia multiceps is tapeworm of dog and its larval stage present in sheep/cattle is known as

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#45. Which worm is known as ‘Barbers pole’

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#46. Eperythrozoonosis can be treated with

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#47. Swollen superficial lymph nodes are seen in

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#48. Lambliasis denotes infection of

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#49. Tape worm of horse is

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#50. Pancreatic fluke is known as

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#51. Bleeding spots in cattle is caused by

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#52. Pipe stem liver is observed in

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#53. The drug of choice for treatment of babesiosis in crossbred cattle is

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#54. Which of the following is not a soft tick

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#55. Following amphistome occurs in the bile duct of ruminants

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#56. The most pathogenic and prevalent nematode of sheep in India is

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#57. Cooked rice grain like segments are seen in the faeces of calves infested with

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#58. One of the most pathogenic coccidian parasites of cattle is

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#59. Surra in cattle and buffaloes is caused by

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#60. Hump sore in cattle is caused by

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#61. The larval stage of Taenia hydatigena is

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#62. Leishmania develops in:

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#63. The intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum is:

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#64. Lung worm of cattle is known as:

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#65. Diphyllobothrium latum is used to lower which vitamin in host:

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#66. Fistulous wither in horse is associated with parasite:

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#67. Morocco leather appearance of abomasum is due to:

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#68. A juvenile hormone used in the control of flies is:

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#69. Which of the following is not to be given during coccidiosis control?

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#70. Which is the infective stage of a strongylic nematode?

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#71. Knott’s technique is used for the examination of:

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#72. Unpouched amphistome is:

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#73. Infective stage in the life cycle of broad tapeworm of ruminants (Moniezia spp.) is:

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#74. Which of the following is the giant kidney worm of dog?

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#75. Pupal stages are absent in the life cycle of:

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#76. Lancet liver fluke of ruminants is:

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#77. Punched out ulcer in the abomasum of cattle are characteristic of:

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#78. Eosinophilic enteritis in human is caused by which dog parasite:

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#79. Severe infestation of this flea can lead to control ulceration and blindness in poultry:

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#80. In the following parasitic diseases, hypoglycemia is observed in:

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#81. Bradyzoitic characteristic of chronic Toxoplasma infection are seen in which organ:

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#82. Immune evasion in trypanosome infection is due to:

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#83. The most pathogenic cestode of poultry is:

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#84. Which of the following tick transmits Anaplasma phagocytophilum in dogs:

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#85. Gape worm of poultry is:

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#86. The drug of choice for the treatment of babesiosis in crossbred cattle is:

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#87. Which of the following is used as a common treatment for coccidiosis in poultry?

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#88. Classical vector for Theileria annulata is:

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#89. Hodge’s garbage trap is employed to catch:

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#90. The period between the time of infection of the host and onset of clinical symptoms is called:

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#91. Nematode egg transmit black head diseases in turkeys:

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#92. Faecal egg count method is done by:

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#93. The following is called as stable fly:

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#94. Sebaceous adenitis/Acne in dogs is due to:

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#95. Culicoides austeni act as vector for:

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#96. The definitive host of Echinococcus granulosus is:

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#97. Which parasite is not transmitted through meat:

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#98. Major lungworms of the horses are:

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#99. Which of the following is an example of Metazoonoses?

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